Proving kth Derivative of f:R->R is 0 at 0

  • Thread starter Thread starter Nusc
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Derivative
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the kth derivative of a specific function, defined piecewise, is zero at the point x=0. The function is defined as f(x) = 0 for x ≤ 0 and f(x) = e^(-1/x) for x > 0. Participants are exploring the smoothness of this function and the behavior of its derivatives at the origin.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of L'Hôpital's rule to demonstrate that derivatives vanish. There is mention of obtaining a polynomial multiplied by e^(-1/x) after differentiation. Questions arise about the nature of the functions involved and whether a lemma is necessary for the proof.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing with various approaches being considered. Some participants suggest examining the type of function resulting from differentiation, while others question the need for formal justification or lemmas. There is no explicit consensus on the next steps, but productive lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the assumption that all derivatives of the function vanish at zero, which leads to discussions about the implications for the function's analyticity in the neighborhood of that point. The nature of the function and its derivatives is central to the inquiry.

Nusc
Messages
752
Reaction score
2
Define f:R->R by fx = 0 if x<=0 and e^-1/x if x>0

Show that f is c^inf and that all the derivatives of f at 0 vanish; that is, f^(k)0=0 for every k.


After taking first and secondderivatives we just apply l'hostpials rule to show that the derivatives vanish.

My problem is for the kth derivative.

We know after taking the derivative we get some polynomail say p(x) so

f^k(x) = p(x) * e^-1/x


What do I do now?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
After you differentiate e^-{1/x} some number of times you only ever end up with e^-{1/x}*(some type of function of x), work out what 'type' of function I mean, and then show that for any function of that type the limit is zero as x tends to zero.
 
I assume that by that type of function you mean the polynomial I spoke of. Do I need to contruct a lemma?
 
You need to prove something. What you call it is up to you.
 
Show that If g: R -> R is analytic in a nbhrd of 0 then gx = sum g^k0 x^k/k! for all x in the symmetric int. with center 0. then f, as defined above, cannot be analytic at 0

Well it is assumed that all derivatives vanish at 0 therefore no power series centered at 0 converges to f on a nbhrd of 0

Is that enough justifcation?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 48 ·
2
Replies
48
Views
7K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
26
Views
3K