Proving Liebniz's Rule by Induction: Stuck at p(n+1)

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The discussion focuses on proving Leibniz's Rule by mathematical induction, specifically addressing the transition from p(n) to p(n+1). The user confirms that p(1) represents the product rule and assumes p(n) is true. The challenge lies in expanding the series for p(n+1) and demonstrating that it is merely one term expansion beyond p(n). The user realizes that differentiating n+1 times involves differentiating n times followed by one additional differentiation.

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barksdalemc
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I have to prove Liebniz's Rule by induction. So the p(1) is just the product rule. I am assuming the p(n) is true. Now when I expand the series for p(n+1) I am stuck. I think I need to collect the terms in the n+1 expansion and show that they are just one term expansion more than the n expansion but I am not getting how.
 
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If you differentiate something n+1 times, then you've differentiated it n times, then once more, haven't you?
 
Wow. I can't believe that's it. Thanks.
 

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