Proving Matrix Equality with Inverse Properties

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equality of two matrices, X and Z, given that XY = I and YZ = I for n×n square matrices X, Y, and Z. Participants explore the implications of these equalities and the properties of matrix inverses in the context of linear algebra.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes a method to show X = Z by manipulating the equations XY = I and YZ = I, questioning if the same logic applies when Y is on different sides of X and Z.
  • Another participant challenges the initial approach, suggesting that if XY = I, then YX = I might also hold, which could be relevant to the proof.
  • A different participant claims to have solved the problem by expressing Y in terms of X and substituting it into the second equation, concluding that Z = X.
  • Another contribution outlines a reasoning path using the properties of the identity matrix and the relationships between the matrices, while noting the need to prove the existence of inverses.
  • A later reply acknowledges the oversight regarding the existence of inverses and expresses agreement with the previous participant's reasoning.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of certain steps in the proof, particularly regarding the manipulation of matrices and the existence of inverses. No consensus is reached on a definitive method to prove X = Z.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the existence of inverses in their arguments, indicating that the proof may depend on this condition being satisfied.

ConeOfIce
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The question is: Suppose one has n×n square matrices X, Y and Z such that
XY = I and Y Z = I. Show that it follows that X = Z.

Now if this were XY and ZY, I would just say that:

XY=ZY -> XY-ZY=0 ->Y(X-Z)=0 -> X-Z=0 -> X=Z.

I am wondering that since the Y is on different sides of the Z and X this still holds? Thanks!
 
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I don't think you can just pull the Y out like that.

If I recall correctly, if XY = I, then doesn't YX = I aswell? If this is true perhaps you could encorporate it into your proof somehow.
 
Actually I think I just figured it out.
X^-1 Y =X^-1 I -> Y=X^-1

then sub that in for Y in the other equation
X^-1 Z = I
XX^-1 Z = X
Z=X

Thanks for your help!
 
it goes like this: XY = I so XYZ = IZ = Z.

but YZ = I too, so XYZ = XI = X. so X = XYZ = Z.

the problem with your argument is that there is no X^-1 unless yoiu prove this problem.

but if yu are careful, yu can use the fact that X = the left inverse of Y and Z = the right inverse of Y.
 
Oh, I forgot the inverses don't always exist...it has been a bit since I have done and linear algebra work. Your solution makes perfect sense, thanks!
 

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