Proving that Supremum of (a,b) is Equal to b

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the supremum of the open interval (a,b) is equal to b. Participants are analyzing the properties of upper bounds and the definition of supremum in the context of real analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the original poster's proof, questioning the clarity of the reasoning and whether all necessary properties of the supremum have been addressed. There are inquiries about the implications of the inequalities presented in the proof.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with some participants expressing confidence in the proof's validity while others seek clarification on specific points. There is a recognition of the need to ensure all properties of the supremum are satisfied, indicating a productive exploration of the proof's structure.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of clearly stating assumptions and ensuring that all elements of the proof align with the definitions of upper bounds and supremum. There is an emphasis on the need for precision in mathematical arguments.

jgens
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Homework Statement



Consider the open interval [itex](a,b)[/itex]. Prove that [itex]\mathrm{sup}{(a,b)} = b[/itex].

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm terrible at these proofs so I would appreciate it if someone could verify (or correct) my solution.

Proof: Clearly [itex]b[/itex] is an upper bound since [itex]\forall{x} \in (a,b)[/itex] we have the strict inequality [itex]a < x < b[/itex]. Now, suppose that [itex]b[/itex] is not the least upper bound. Letting [itex]c = \mathrm{sup}{(a,b)}[/itex] there must be some real [itex]\varepsilon > 0[/itex] such that [itex]b - \varepsilon = c[/itex]. However, since [itex]\varepsilon > 0[/itex] this implies that [itex]\frac{\varepsilon}{2} > 0[/itex] and similarly that [itex]b > b - \frac{\varepsilon}{2} > b - \varepsilon = c[/itex] which contradicts the fact that [itex]c = \mathrm{sup}{(a,b)}[/itex]. This completes the proof.

I know that my proof is definitely wordy, but is it correct? Thanks for any suggestions!
 
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jgens said:

Homework Statement



Consider the open interval [itex](a,b)[/itex]. Prove that [itex]\mathrm{sup}{(a,b)} = b[/itex].

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm terrible at these proofs so I would appreciate it if someone could verify (or correct) my solution.

Proof: Clearly [itex]b[/itex] is an upper bound since [itex]\forall{x} \in (a,b)[/itex] we have the strict inequality [itex]a < x < b[/itex]. Now, suppose that [itex]b[/itex] is not the least upper bound. Letting [itex]c = \mathrm{sup}{(a,b)}[/itex] there must be some real [itex]\varepsilon > 0[/itex] such that [itex]b - \varepsilon = c[/itex]. However, since [itex]\varepsilon > 0[/itex] this implies that [itex]\frac{\varepsilon}{2} > 0[/itex] and similarly that [itex]b > b - \frac{\varepsilon}{2} > b - \varepsilon = c[/itex] which contradicts the fact that [itex]c = \mathrm{sup}{(a,b)}[/itex]. This completes the proof.

I know that my proof is definitely wordy, but is it correct? Thanks for any suggestions!

You may have the basics of a proof there, but it is definitely unclear. Why dose [itex]b > b - \frac{\varepsilon}{2} > b - \varepsilon = c[/itex] contradict the assumption that c is the supremum? If you clear that up, then the proof should be fine. Remember, there are 2 properties c should satisfy to be the supremum: It should be an upper bound, and every other upper bound should be greater than it. Which, if any, of these properties have you shown c not to satisfy?
 
The proof seems fine to me.
 
Yeah it looks clear to me. I mean the OP demonstrates that b - e/2 is in the open interval and (a,b) is greater than the supposed sup (a,b), so there's really not much else to say...
 
snipez90 said:
Yeah it looks clear to me. I mean the OP demonstrates that b - e/2 is in the open interval and (a,b) is greater than the supposed sup (a,b), so there's really not much else to say...

But he doesn't. He doesn't explicitly say it and he doesn't restrict e to eliminate the possibility that b-e/2 < a so that it is not in the interval.
 
LeonhardEuler said:
But he doesn't. He doesn't explicitly say it and he doesn't restrict e to eliminate the possibility that b-e/2 < a so that it is not in the interval.

He did say it. He said "which contradicts the fact that [tex]c = sup{(a,b)}[/tex] . This completes the proof. ".

Also, it's pretty obvious that b - e is not less than a (because it's the LUB for the set), and so b - e/2 cannot be less than a.

I see what you mean, but in my opinion, being that wordy would just make the proof longer than it has to be, without really contributing anything.
 

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