Proving that the Archimedean axiom is true

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the Archimedean axiom using the Least Upper Bound Property and other axioms of the real numbers. The original poster is tasked with demonstrating that the Archimedean axiom follows from these foundational principles.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts a proof by contradiction, beginning with the assumption that the Archimedean axiom is false. Participants discuss the implications of this assumption, particularly regarding the existence of a supremum for a set of natural numbers.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the proof structure, questioning the validity of steps taken and clarifying the reasoning behind the existence of certain values. There is a focus on ensuring that the logic aligns with the properties of supremums and bounded sets.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the definitions and properties of supremums and bounded sets, as well as the need for clarity in the proof's assumptions and conclusions. The discussion reflects the complexity of the proof and the nuances involved in formal mathematical reasoning.

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Homework Statement


Show that the Archimedean axiom O5 follows from the Least Upper Bound Property O6, together with the other axioms for the reals.

Homework Equations


O5 = [if a,b > 0, then there is a positive integer n such that b<a+a+a+...+a (n summands)] or [if a,b > 0, then b < na or b/a < n]

O6 = if A is any nonempty subset of R that is bounded above, then there is a least upper bound for A.

The Attempt at a Solution


My teacher told us to do this as a proof by contradiction so that's the format I'll be doing.

Suppose the Archimedean axiom is false towards a proof by contradiction. Therefore, there exists some a,b > 0 such that b [itex]\geq[/itex] na, or b/a [itex]\geq[/itex] n.
Then the set, say N, is bounded above by b/a and so sup(N) exists. Write sup(N) = S.

And then I can't figure out how to finish this proof.
 
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That [itex]S=\sup(\mathbb{N})[/itex] means that there is a natural number n that is close to S. But then n+1>S...

Try to formalize this.
 
If n+1>S, then there exists a natural number not bounded above by S.
This is a contradiction as the set N is the set of whole positive integers and adding 1 would not exclude any n previously in the set N.

Is that right?
 
major_maths said:
If n+1>S, then there exists a natural number not bounded above by S.
This is a contradiction as the set N is the set of whole positive integers and adding 1 would not exclude any n previously in the set N.

Is that right?

Yes, that is correct. How would you choose n though?
 
I would choose n to be close to S, or S-1<n<S.

So for any n bounded above by S but greater than S-1, if n+1>S, then there exists a natural number not bounded above by S.

And so on, and so on. Is that specific enough?
 
major_maths said:
I would choose n to be close to S, or S-1<n<S.

So for any n bounded above by S but greater than S-1, if n+1>S, then there exists a natural number not bounded above by S.

And so on, and so on. Is that specific enough?

Yes, but you need to state why such an n exists. You probably know it, but I want to make sure.
 
Oh. Um, it exists because S is the supremum of the set?
 
major_maths said:
Oh. Um, it exists because S is the supremum of the set?

Yes, do you understand why?
 
S is the supremum of the set because the set is bounded above by b/a, which is what sup(N[/]) is defined as at the beginning of the proof (b/a ≥ n).
 

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