Proving that the free particle lagrangian is rotationally symmetric

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the rotational symmetry of the free particle Lagrangian, specifically the expression $$L=m/2 [\dot{R^{2}} + R^{2}\dot{\theta^{2}} + R^{2}\sin^{2}(\theta)\dot{\phi^{2}}]$$. Participants explore the implications of infinitesimal rotations on the Lagrangian, particularly how the term $$\sin^{2}(\theta)$$ transforms under these rotations. The challenge lies in demonstrating that the resulting terms can be expressed as gauge terms, which is essential for applying Noether's theorem regarding continuous symmetries.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Lagrangian mechanics and the formulation of Lagrangians.
  • Familiarity with spherical coordinates and their derivatives.
  • Knowledge of Noether's theorem and its application to symmetries in physics.
  • Basic concepts of infinitesimal transformations and their implications in physics.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and implications of Noether's theorem in classical mechanics.
  • Learn about the transformation properties of Lagrangians under continuous symmetries.
  • Explore the mathematical framework of infinitesimal rotations in three-dimensional space.
  • Investigate gauge theories and their relationship with symmetries in physics.
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for physics students, particularly those studying classical mechanics, theoretical physicists interested in symmetries, and researchers exploring the foundations of gauge theories.

stormyweathers
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Homework Statement


Show that the free particle lagrangian is invariant to rotations in $$\Re^{3}$$, but I assume this means invariant up to a gauge term.
$$L=m/2 [\dot{R^{2}} + R^{2}\dot{θ^{2}} +R^{2}Sin^{2}(θ)\dot{\phi^{2}}$$


Homework Equations


I consider an aribtrary infinitesimal rotation:
$$ \theta(t,\epsilon)=\theta(t,0)+\epsilon \Delta \theta $$
$$ \phi(t,\epsilon)=\phi(t,0)+\delta \Delta \phi $$


The Attempt at a Solution


The new angle derivitives are identical to the first, since we evaluate them by taking the time partial of the transformed coordinates.
I am running into issues with the $$Sin^{2}(\theta)$$ term.
$$Sin^{2}(\theta) \rightarrow Sin^{2}(\theta)+2Cos(\theta)Sin(\theta) \epsilon \Delta \theta + O(\epsilon^{2})$$

The epsilon term is throwing me off, because I can't get it to disappear or rewrite it as a gauge term.
 
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Why do you have to use infinitesimal rotations and a Lagrangian written in terms of spherical coordinates?

Whey not apply a finite rotation to

[tex]L = \frac{1}{2} m \dot{\vec{r}} \cdot \dot{\vec{r}} ?[/tex]
 


It seemed more straightforward to apply displacements in the angular directions. To apply a general rotation matrix would be a ton more algebra, no?

I need to use infinitesimal rotations because I am trying to prove a continuous symmetry for noether's theorem
 
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