icystrike
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Homework Statement
[tex]\int_{0}^{1} \int_{0}^{1} (xy) dx dy = [\int_{0}^{1} (x) dx] [\int_{0}^{1} (y) dy][/tex]
Its use to prove the convolution formula..
Tangent87 said:It's just standard separating multiple integrals, you could write the same thing with xy replaced by f(x)f(y).
icystrike said:But why is that so? Is it because the region of integration is rectangular?
Referring to Fubini Theorem