Proving the Generating Function for 1/(z-1) Using Binomial Expansion

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SUMMARY

The generating function 1/(1-z) is proven to equal the infinite product (1+z)(1+z^2)(1+z^4)..., which expands to the series 1+z+z^2+z^3+z^4+... This relationship is established through the binomial expansion and the properties of generating functions. The discussion highlights a common mistake in substituting variables, emphasizing the importance of correctly applying the formula without introducing unnecessary variables.

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Homework Statement


Prove that the generating function 1/(1-z) = (1+z)(1+z^2)(1+z^4)(1+z^8)...
which is also to 1+z+z^2+z^3+z^4+... when you multiply out the binomials.

Homework Equations


(1/(1-z))^k = {\Sigma[from i=0 to infinity] C(i+k-1, k-1)z^i}

The Attempt at a Solution


I've been playing around with this for a while. I thought I had it, but then I realized that I plugged the "n+1" into the exponent...ie 1+z+z^2+z^3+z^4+...+z^n+z^n+1...but that is not right...I need to plug in z+1 into each z.

PS Ignore the topic name, it should be 1/(1-z)

Thanks
Thanks
 
Last edited:
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So you want to prove that 1/(1-z) = (1+z)(1+z2)(1+z4)...?
 
Why do you refer to induction? There is no "n" in your formula to do an induction on!
 

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