Proving the Limit of a Sequence Math Problem with Continuous Function f(x)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a limit related to a sequence involving a continuous function f(x) defined within the bounds of 0 and 1. The original poster presents a mathematical statement that involves evaluating a limit as n approaches infinity, specifically focusing on the behavior of a product of terms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the evaluation of an integral related to the function log(1+x) and its implications for the limit. There is an exploration of the continuity of the function and the bounds of the integral, as well as the necessity of the 1/n power in the limit expression.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants questioning the original poster's evaluation of the integral and suggesting corrections to the limits of integration. Some participants are exploring the logarithmic transformation of the limit expression as a potential next step.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted discrepancy regarding the limits of integration and the interpretation of the integral's convergence. The original poster acknowledges a mistake in their initial setup, and there is uncertainty about the necessity of certain components in the limit expression.

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Homework Statement



Prove that if f(x) is continuous for 0<f(x)<1, then [tex]lim_{n->\infty}\frac{1}{n}[(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)...(2n)]^{\frac{1}{n}}=\frac{4}{e}[/tex].

Homework Equations

f(x)=log(1+x)

The Attempt at a Solution


We know that [tex]lim_{n->\infty}\frac{1}{n}[f(\frac{1}{n})+f(\frac{2}{n})+f(\frac{3}{n})+...f(\frac{n}{n})]=\int_0^1 f(x)dx[/tex]

So that [tex]\int_0^1 log(1+x)(=f(x))dx[/tex] equals the sequence in the limit.
But evaluation of the integral shows that it is a divergent one.
 
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There's no way that integral can be divergent. In the interval between 0 and 1, log(1+x) is bounded by 0 and log(2), respectively. So the integral of log(1+x) needs to be between 0 and log(2). It should be relatively easy to prove that the integral is bounded above and below by those two numbers.
 


Right, I should've fixed the limits of integration from 0to 1 to 1 to 2 when i did it. Thanks for point it out. Although I think the 1/n power indicated in the problem is not necessary.
 
Last edited:


So after you've found the value of the integral, what's your next step? Do you know?
 


It turned out to be [tex]\lim_{n->\infty}\frac{1}{n}(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)...(2n)=\frac{e}{4}[/tex]
 


Hmm, but did you remember the 1/n power? First thing I'd try doing is taking the logarithm of the left and right sides.
 


oops.
 

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