Proving the Oddness of sin(mx)cos(nx) using Integration

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The integral of sin(mx)cos(nx) over the interval from -π to π equals zero for all integer values of m and n. This is demonstrated by using the identity sin(A)cos(B) = 1/2[sin(A-B) + sin(A+B)], which transforms the integral into the sum of two sine functions. Since sine functions are odd, their integrals over symmetric intervals cancel out, resulting in a total integral of zero. The discussion emphasizes the importance of recognizing the odd nature of sine functions in proving the formula. The approach and reasoning provided confirm the validity of the proof.
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Homework Statement


Prove the following formula
<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx = 0\\<br /> (m, n = \pm 1, \pm 2, \pm 3, ...)<br />

Homework Equations


<br /> \sin(A)\cos(B) = \frac{1}{2}[\sin(A-B)+\sin(A+B)]<br />

The Attempt at a Solution



<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx\\<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx-nx)+\sin(mx+nx)\,dx\\<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)+\sin((m+n)x)\,dx<br />
Edit
<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)\,dx + \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m+n)x)\,dx<br />
the function, sine of any constant times x, is an odd function, therefore when it is integraded from -a to a, its value is 0.
Therefore, we get
<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)\,dx + \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m+n)x)\,dx = 0 + 0 = 0<br />
Would that be sufficient in the proof?

Thanks guys!
 
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Just do the integrals, taking care to treat the case where m=n separately. You know how to integrate sin kx, right?
 
tainted said:

Homework Statement


Prove the following formula
<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx = 0\\<br /> (m, n = \pm 1, \pm 2, \pm 3, ...)<br />

Homework Equations


<br /> \sin(A)\cos(B) = \frac{1}{2}[\sin(A-B)+\sin(A+B)]<br />

The Attempt at a Solution



<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx\\<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx-nx)+\sin(mx+nx)\,dx\\<br /> \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)+\sin((m+n)x)\,dx\\<br />

Now I would imagine that there is some identity to either evaluate these or to prove that these are odd.
!

What do you know about odd and even functions and integrals? Are sines and cosines odd or even? Can you draw any conclusions about those integrands?
 
Ok well of course -sin(x) = sin(-x) but does that hold true when there is a constant in front of x?
 
tainted said:
Ok well of course -sin(x) = sin(-x) but does that hold true when there is a constant in front of x?

x can be anything in that identity, can't it? Like, for example, cx.
 
a(-x)= -(ax).
 
Ok thanks guys! I think I got it, could you tell me if my attempted answer to the question appears to be sufficient?
 
Yeah, that's sufficient. But can you see how could have done the whole problem in one step?
 

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