Proving the triangle inequality property of the distance between sets

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the triangle inequality property of the distance between sets, specifically using the symmetric difference and outer measure concepts. The original poster introduces the notation for symmetric difference and outer measure, seeking to establish a relationship between these measures.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the properties of outer measure, particularly in relation to measurable subsets. There are attempts to relate the measures of set differences and questions about the definitions of the measures involved.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring various interpretations of the problem, particularly regarding the nature of the sets involved and the definitions of the measures. Some guidance has been offered regarding the properties of Lebesgue outer measure, but no consensus has been reached on the assumptions or definitions presented.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted constraint that the sets A and B must be measurable subsets of a measurable set X, which raises questions about the original problem's wording regarding "arbitrary subsets." This may influence the approach to the proof being discussed.

jdinatale
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Proving the "triangle inequality" property of the distance between sets

Here's the problem and how far I've gotten on it:

Untitled-3.png


If you are unfamiliar with that notation, S(A, B) = (A \ B) U (B \ A), which is the symmetric difference.

And D(A, B) = m^*(S(A, B)), which is the outer measure of the symmetric difference.
 
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Hm, can you show that [itex]m^*(A\backslash B)+m^*(B\backslash C)\ge m^*(A \backslash C)[/itex], same for [itex]m^*(B\backslash A)+[/itex]...

One question, is [itex]m^*[/itex] outer Jordan measure?
 


Note that A and B cannot be just "arbitrary subsets of an arbitrary set X". They must be measurable subsets of the measurable set X.
 


Karamata said:
Hm, can you show that [itex]m^*(A\backslash B)+m^*(B\backslash C)\ge m^*(A \backslash C)[/itex], same for [itex]m^*(B\backslash A)+[/itex]...

One question, is [itex]m^*[/itex] outer Jordan measure?

m^* is Lebesgue Outer Measure.

HallsofIvy said:
Note that A and B cannot be just "arbitrary subsets of an arbitrary set X". They must be measurable subsets of the measurable set X.

I can see your point, but I'm copying the problem verbatim out of my textbook, and it uses "arbitrary subsets of an arbitrary set X." Would you say that is a mistake on the author's part?
 


jdinatale said:
m^* is Lebesgue Outer Measure.

Ok.

Well, if [itex]A[/itex] and [itex]B[/itex] are disjoint sets, then [itex]m^*(A\cup B)\le m^*(A)+m^*(B)[/itex].

You can prove this by definition Lebesgue Outer Measure.
 


Well, I got really close. Using the fact that S(A, C) subset S(A, B) U S(B, C), I obtained the following:

close.png
 

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