HallsofIvy said:
What are the others? I suspect those are what you need. As radou said, most definitions of "inner product" give "<x, x>= 0 implies x= 0" as an axiom. If your book does not, then the "others" must be different from what I am familiar with.
Here's some more the book provided:
<x+z,y> = <x,y> + <z,y>
<x,cy> = \bar{c}<x,y> Here the bar denotes complex conjugation.
\overline{<x,y>} = <y,x>
<x,x> > 0 \ \mbox{if} \ x \neq 0
Note that the second ">" represents "greater than". But I find this to be odd, since F is treated as either R or C, and the complex numbers are not ordered in any way. The book I'm using is
Linear Algebra 3rd Edn by Stephen Friedberg, Arnold J. Insel, and Lawrence Spence. The axioms can be found in the beginning of the chapter on inner product spaces, chap 6.
How does this follow? Certainly if x+ x= 0, then the left side is <0,0> but how do <-x,0> and <x, 0> become <0,0> for arbitrary x?
Well in this case, it is given that x=0, and we know that -x is the additive inverse of x in F, so -x+x = 0. Using the first axiom I just quoted above, this breaks down to <-x,0> + <x,0>. And since x=0 and -0 = 0, both reduce to <0,0>. By the law of additive cancellation, <0,0> cancels on both sides, leaving one <0,0> on one side with 0 on the other side.
<0,0> + 0 = <-x+x,0>
<0,0> + 0 = <-x,0> + <x,0>
<0,0> + 0 = <0,0> + <0,0>
0 = <0,0>
I would think <x, 0>= <x+ 0, 0>= <x, 0>+ <0, 0> is what you need.
Is this a hint for proving <x,x> = 0 implies x=0 or the one just above?