Pseudo frequency? Related to phase shift

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MRI technology relies on the principle that nuclei of particles can spin at the same frequency while exhibiting phase differences due to their varying positions. These phase differences cannot be directly measured, so MRI encodes them as pseudo-frequencies, allowing the system to determine the origin of each particle. The common frequency arises from the uniform magnetic field, while the application of a field gradient causes slight frequency shifts based on distance from the antenna. This shift is typically measured in parts per million, enabling precise localization of signals. Understanding this relationship between phase differences and pseudo-frequencies is crucial for grasping MRI functionality.
nomisme
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I am reading a text about how MRI works and I came across a thing that I am totally confused.

The book mentions about that few particles side by side with their nuclei spinning at the same frequency but they all have a phase difference. Since MRI cannot measure the phase differences directly, it will try to encode the phase differences in term of so called pseudo-frequency. With each unique pseudo frequency the MRI will know where that particle coming from.

The thing I am confused is how can each nuclei share a common frequency yet they have a different frequency due to their phase differences?

Am I misunderstanding something?
 
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I think the phase difference you are referring to is determined by the differences in distance from the nuclei to the antenna.
 
They precess at the same frequency in a uniform magnetic field. Once a field gradient is applied, their frequencies differ slightly depending on position. The gradient means that the applied field changes a little bit, linearly with position. This results in the basic frequency being shifted, typically, by parts per million.
 
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