Putnam and Beyond Problem 113 Solution

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that a triangle with side lengths \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) has the property that for any positive integer \(n\), the numbers \(a^n\), \(b^n\), and \(c^n\) can also be the side lengths of a triangle. The original poster attempts to explore cases based on the values of \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) being greater than or less than 1.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various cases for the values of \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\), including scenarios where they are greater than or less than 1. There are hints suggesting to find a specific \(n\) that satisfies certain inequalities, and some participants express the complexity of the problem while seeking simpler proofs.

Discussion Status

There are multiple lines of reasoning being explored, with hints provided to simplify the problem. Some participants are confirming their understanding of the implications of their approaches, while others are questioning the necessity of considering all cases.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenge of proving the statement without dividing into cases, indicating a potential constraint in the approach to the problem.

ehrenfest
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[SOLVED] putnam and beyond prob 113

Homework Statement


Let a,b,c be side lengths of a triangle with the property that for any positive integer n, the numbers a^n, b^n, and c^n can also be the side lengths of a triangle. Prove that the triangle is necessarily isosceles.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I can do the case where a,b>1 and c<1 using the triangle inequalities a^n+c^n>b^n>a^n-c^n and squeezing but I cannot do the case where a,b,c>1 or a,b,c<1 unfortunately. Can someone give me a hint?
 
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Hi ehrenfest! :smile:

Hint: if it's not isoceles, then name the sides so that a > b > c > 1.

You need to find an n such that a^n > b^n + c^n. :smile:
 
I got it. When n is large enough

[tex]\frac{c}{a-b}\left( \frac{c}{a} \right)^{n-1} < 1[/tex]

or

[tex](a-b) a^{n-1} > c^n[/tex]

Then we have

[tex]a^n -b^n = (a-b)(a^{n-1}+ \cdots b^{n-1}) > (a-b)a^{n-1} >c^n[/tex]

which is what we want. Thanks. Please confirm that this is correct.
 
Last edited:
hmm … a bit complicated …

For a simpler proof …

Hint: forget c, and just find an n with a^n > 2(b^n). :smile:
 
tiny-tim said:
hmm … a bit complicated …

For a simpler proof …

Hint: forget c, and just find an n with a^n > 2(b^n). :smile:

That works too.

EDIT: and wow that is much simpler since you avoid dividing into cases
 
Last edited:
ehrenfest said:
EDIT: and wow that is much simpler since you avoid dividing into cases

Yes … very simple questions often have very simple answers if you look long enough! :rolleyes:

Moral … simplify the problem as much as possible … then solve it! :smile:
 

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