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I am just going through a book on calculus and understand that the definite integral can be interpreted as area under the curve.

Now I am trying to figure out the orthogonality relationship between functions and this is normally defined (as far as I can tell from the internet resources) as the definite integral between some limit of the product of the two functions f(x)g(x) wrt to dx.

And if this integral is 0, then the functions are said to be orthogonal.

This is a concept that I am having trouble with. So the total area under the curve is 0. How does this work? Do we have positive and negative areas cancelling each other out? I am really struggling with this concept... could someone help me interpret the orthogonal function relationship using the area under the curve definition of the definite integral?

Hope the question is not too stupid...

Thanks,

Luca

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# Question about definite integral and orthogonal functions

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