Question about Holonomy of metric connecton

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The discussion centers on the holonomy group of a metric connection as described in Nakahara's "Geometry, Topology and Physics, 2e." It establishes that for a Riemannian manifold, the holonomy group is a subgroup of O(m), while for a Lorentzian manifold, it is a subgroup of SO(m-1,1). The preservation of the inner product during parallel transport is crucial, as it defines orthogonal transformations. Clarifications were made regarding the correct interpretation of Nakahara's statements about the holonomy group and the implications of the manifold's orientation.

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I am trying to follow Nakahara's book about Holonomy.
if parallel transporting a vector around a loop induces a linear map (an element of holonomy group)
{P_c}:{T_p}M \to {T_p}M

the holonomy group should be a subgroup of
GL(m,R)

then the book said for a metric connection, the property
{g_p}({P_c}(X),{P_c}(Y)) = {g_p}(X,Y)
makes the holonomy group a subgroup of O(m) if the manifold is Riemannian; and a subgroup of O(m-1) if the manifold is Lorentzian.

The author must think this is very straightforward and didn't explain why. Can anybody help?
 
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I assume the book you're referring to is Nakahara's Geometry, Topology and Physics, 2e.
lichen1983312 said:
then the book said for a metric connection, the property
{g_p}({P_c}(X),{P_c}(Y)) = {g_p}(X,Y)
This isn't what the book says. Nakahara actually writes {g_p}({P_c}(X),{P_c}(X)) = {g_p}(X,X)

In any case, a linear transformation which preserves the inner product is the definition of an orthogonal transformation.

Also, Nakahara doesn't say that the holonomy group is a subgroup of O(m-1) in the Lorentzian case, he says it's a subgroup of SO(m-1,1).
 
If the connection is compatible with the metric, then parallel translation preserves the metric..

If the vector fields ##Y## and ##Z## are parallel along a curve with tangent vector ##X## then

##X⋅<Y,Z> = <∇_{X}Y,Z> + <Y,∇_{X}Z>## so the inner product of ##Y## with ##Z## is constant along the curve.

If the metric is Riemannian, that is: it is positive definite on each tangent space, then parallel translation is an orthogonal linear map. If the metric is not positive definite then parallel translation is an element of ##O(m-p,p)##. In the case of a Lorentz metric ##p=1##.

- If the manifold is not orientable then then a holonomy transformation may be orientation reversing.
 
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The Bill said:
I assume the book you're referring to is Nakahara's Geometry, Topology and Physics, 2e.

This isn't what the book says. Nakahara actually writes {g_p}({P_c}(X),{P_c}(X)) = {g_p}(X,X)

In any case, a linear transformation which preserves the inner product is the definition of an orthogonal transformation.

Also, Nakahara doesn't say that the holonomy group is a subgroup of O(m-1) in the Lorentzian case, he says it's a subgroup of SO(m-1,1).
Thanks for replying, this is very helpful, and I will try to keep the book close next when I am typing.
 
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lavinia said:
If the connection is compatible with the metric, then parallel translation preserves the metric..

If the vector fields ##Y## and ##Z## are parallel along a curve with tangent vector ##X## then

##X⋅<Y,Z> = <∇_{X}Y,Z> + <Y,∇_{X}Z>## so the inner product of ##Y## with ##Z## is constant along the curve.

If the metric is Riemannian, that is: it is positive definite on each tangent space, then parallel translation is an orthogonal linear map. If the metric is not positive definite then parallel translation is an element of ##O(m-p,p)##. In the case of a Lorentz metric ##p=1##.

- If the manifold is not orientable then then a holonomy transformation may be orientation reversing.
Now I seem to be able to understand the inner product preserving property make a orthogonal group, but can you explain where does the dimension (m-1) come from for Lorenzian case? Thanks
 
The m-1 comes from the fact that the inner product in the Lorentzian case is usually written with signature (m-1,1). That is, (-1,1,1,1) or (1,-1,-1,-1,-1) for 4d spacetime, for example. In the general case, this is the indefinite orthogonal group, and Nakahara is only considering the connected component which contains the identity. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indefinite_orthogonal_group
 
The Bill said:
The m-1 comes from the fact that the inner product in the Lorentzian case is usually written with signature (m-1,1). That is, (-1,1,1,1) or (1,-1,-1,-1,-1) for 4d spacetime, for example. In the general case, this is the indefinite orthogonal group, and Nakahara is only considering the connected component which contains the identity. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indefinite_orthogonal_group
Thanks very much, now I see the point.
 

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