Question about inverse functions

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SUMMARY

To establish that two functions, f and g, are inverses, it is essential to prove both F(g(X))=X and g(f(X))=X. The discussion highlights that while F(g(X))=X can hold true, g(f(X))=X may not necessarily be valid, particularly when dealing with functions like f(x)=x² and g(x)=√x. In this case, g(f(x)) results in |x|, indicating that the inverse is not a function unless the domain of f is restricted to non-negative numbers.

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Spirochete
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If you've already found that F(g(X))=X, is it necessarry to also prove that g(f(X))=X to know that you have inverse functions? Would there be a case where the first statement is true but the second is false?
 
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Spirochete said:
If you've already found that F(g(X))=X, is it necessarry to also prove that g(f(X))=X to know that you have inverse functions? Would there be a case where the first statement is true but the second is false?
The inverse of many functions are not functions themselves.
 
In particular, if [itex]f(x)= x^2[/itex]] and [itex]g(x)= \sqrt{x}[/itex], [itex]f(g(x))= (\sqrt(x))^2= x[/itex] but [itex]g(f(x))= \sqrt{x^2}= |x|[/itex]. Of course, if the domain of f is restricted to the non-negative numbers, then they are inverses.
 

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