Question about KG with negative mass^2

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Well can someone review this?

KG equation:
[itex]\square \Phi + m^{2} \Phi =0, ~~ m^{2} <0 \Rightarrow m=i \mu[/itex]
would lead to the form:
[itex]\square \Phi = \mu^{2} \Phi[/itex].

I'm trying to think if applying the same solution as in KG can also happen here...
Also for on-shell particles, I seem to be getting the "same" equation as we do for normal positive masses:
[itex]\int d^{4}k [k^{2}- \mu^{2}] \tilde{\Phi}(k) e^{ikx}=0[/itex]
and so [itex]k^{2} = \mu^{2}[/itex]
 
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What is your question??

And what is the context? QFT? Classical field theory? First-quantized relativistic wave equation?
 
My question is that in a normal KG equation, you have solutions:

[itex]e^{i (E t- \vec{k} \vec{x})}[/itex]
Where [itex]E^{2} - k^{2} = m^{2}[/itex]
and these are oscillating solutions... Now if I let [itex]m^2 <0[/itex] then it means that [itex]E,k \in C[/itex], is that right?
as such the solutions become exponentials...:/ however I was expecting hyperbolic solutions...

I think I'm talking about Classical FT...
 
and how can someone deduce from that the instability of the field? because it explodes exponentially? although I am a bit confused about x in [itex]\phi(x)[/itex] and what it actually means... eg some people say that it's unstable because if you make some displacement x--> x+dx then it won't remain in the same state...however [itex]\phi[/itex] should exist in the whole space, no?