Question about the start of a cosine fourier series

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the necessity of starting a cosine Fourier series at the term n = 0, particularly in the context of the a_{0} term. Participants explore the implications of this choice on the completeness of the basis for even functions and the convergence of the series.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions why the cosine Fourier series must start at n = 0, suggesting that starting at any positive integer should not affect the orthogonality proof or the coefficients.
  • Another participant asserts that changing or deleting terms affects what the series converges to, even if it does not affect convergence itself.
  • A third participant explains that the set of {cos(nπx/L)} for all integers n forms a complete basis for even functions on the interval [-L, L], indicating that omitting the n = 0 term would result in an incomplete basis.
  • This participant emphasizes the connection between Fourier expansions and linear algebra, suggesting that understanding linear algebra concepts could clarify the discussion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the necessity of the n = 0 term, with some supporting its importance for completeness and others questioning its role in convergence and orthogonality.

Contextual Notes

The discussion touches on the completeness of the basis for even functions and the implications of modifying the series, but does not resolve the underlying questions about convergence and the role of the n = 0 term.

deckoff9
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Question about the "start" of a cosine Fourier series

Hey. I was just looking through Paul's Online Notes http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/DE/FourierCosineSeries.aspx to teach myself Fourier Series and I had a question about the a_{0} term of the cosine series.

In the online lesson, it says assume an even function has the series f(x) = \Sigmaa_{n}cos(n\pix/L) where -L≤x≤L. The series starts at 0, and the way Paul gave a prove of it was to multiply the series by cos(m\pix/L) and then integrated and used the fact that cos(m\pix/L) and cos(n\pix/L) were orthogonal if m!=n.

So that for example, for the Fourier series of x^{2}, he got a_{0} = L^{2}/3, where -L≤x≤L.

However, my question is, why do we need to start at n = 0? The proof using orthogonality would work just as well if n were to start at 1 or 100, and the formula for the coefficients would remain the same. In addition, I'm not sure convergence explains it, since the beginning terms of a infinite series have no effect on the convergence of an infinite series. So I was hoping someone could clear this up for me.

Thanks in advance!
 
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Changing or deleting a finite number of terms will not change whether or not the series converges but it surely changes what it converge to!
 


You're making use of the fact that the set of { \cos \frac{n \pi x}{L} } for all integers n serves as a complete basis for even functions on the interval L. Without the n = 0 term, you don't have a complete basis and thus can't span the space of even continuous on this interval (in reality, the space this set spans is a little bigger than just continuous even functions, but for brevity of the conversation, I've cut it down).

At its heart the Fourier expansion is based in applications of linear algebra, hence why my explanation is based in linear algebra terms. If you struggle with the explanation, you should look into some basic linear algebra concepts and definitions. These expansions are one of my favorite examples of "hidden" linear algebra.
 


Thanks for the answers guys! It helped clear up my confusion a lot.
 

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