Question about the start of a cosine fourier series

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the necessity of starting the cosine Fourier series at the term a_{0} for even functions, as outlined in Paul's Online Notes. The series is defined as f(x) = Σa_{n}cos(nπx/L) for -L≤x≤L, where the a_{0} term is crucial for maintaining a complete basis of even functions over the specified interval. The orthogonality of cosine functions is highlighted, demonstrating that omitting the a_{0} term would prevent the series from spanning the space of even continuous functions. The conversation emphasizes the linear algebra foundations underlying Fourier expansions.

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  • Familiarity with orthogonality in trigonometric functions
  • Basic concepts of linear algebra, particularly vector spaces and bases
  • Knowledge of even functions and their properties
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Question about the "start" of a cosine Fourier series

Hey. I was just looking through Paul's Online Notes http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/DE/FourierCosineSeries.aspx to teach myself Fourier Series and I had a question about the a_{0} term of the cosine series.

In the online lesson, it says assume an even function has the series f(x) = \Sigmaa_{n}cos(n\pix/L) where -L≤x≤L. The series starts at 0, and the way Paul gave a prove of it was to multiply the series by cos(m\pix/L) and then integrated and used the fact that cos(m\pix/L) and cos(n\pix/L) were orthogonal if m!=n.

So that for example, for the Fourier series of x^{2}, he got a_{0} = L^{2}/3, where -L≤x≤L.

However, my question is, why do we need to start at n = 0? The proof using orthogonality would work just as well if n were to start at 1 or 100, and the formula for the coefficients would remain the same. In addition, I'm not sure convergence explains it, since the beginning terms of a infinite series have no effect on the convergence of an infinite series. So I was hoping someone could clear this up for me.

Thanks in advance!
 
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Changing or deleting a finite number of terms will not change whether or not the series converges but it surely changes what it converge to!
 


You're making use of the fact that the set of { \cos \frac{n \pi x}{L} } for all integers n serves as a complete basis for even functions on the interval L. Without the n = 0 term, you don't have a complete basis and thus can't span the space of even continuous on this interval (in reality, the space this set spans is a little bigger than just continuous even functions, but for brevity of the conversation, I've cut it down).

At its heart the Fourier expansion is based in applications of linear algebra, hence why my explanation is based in linear algebra terms. If you struggle with the explanation, you should look into some basic linear algebra concepts and definitions. These expansions are one of my favorite examples of "hidden" linear algebra.
 


Thanks for the answers guys! It helped clear up my confusion a lot.
 

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