- #1

mnb96

- 713

- 5

my question arises from reading the section on Smoothness/Compactness from Bracewell's "The Fourier Transform and Its Applications" page 162.

I don't quite understand the following reasoning:

[tex]F(\omega) = \ldots = \frac{1}{i\omega}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f'(x)e^{-i\omega x}dx[/tex]

and at this point the author says that when [itex]\omega\to\infty[/itex] then [itex]\omega F(\omega) \to 0[/itex].

But why [itex]\omega F(\omega)[/itex] is supposed to tend to zero, and not just [itex]F(\omega) \to 0[/itex] ?

Thanks.