Question on Two Decays of Rho Meson

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the decay processes of the rho meson, specifically the decays \(\rho^0 \to \pi^+\pi^-\) and \(\rho^0 \to \pi^0\pi^0\). While both decays are allowed by conservation laws, the decay \(\rho^0 \to \pi^0\pi^0\) is forbidden due to the Clebsch-Gordan coefficient being zero for this coupling. The participants clarify that the symmetry of the wavefunction under the exchange of pions plays a crucial role in determining the allowed decay channels.

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Homework Statement


I saw here, but since the thread is closed I need to ask my question in a new thread.

I have two decays: \rho^0\to \pi^+\pi^- and \rho^0\to \pi^0\pi^0. The text says that both are allowed with respect to laws of conservation of energy and impulse. Why is the second one forbidden?

Both rho meson and pi meson, are a triplet in isospin space, so I don't see a problem there. But how are both allowed with respect to conservation of impulse, if the impulse of rho is 1, and of pions is 0 (impulse as in J=L+S)?

Is it just because the Clebsch-Gordan coefficient in the second decay is 0 and in the first it's \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}?

So the coupling of two pi0 is forrbidden in the isospin coupling? Is that the answer?
 
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dingo_d said:

Homework Statement


I saw here, but since the thread is closed I need to ask my question in a new thread.

I have two decays: \rho^0\to \pi^+\pi^- and \rho^0\to \pi^0\pi^0. The text says that both are allowed with respect to laws of conservation of energy and impulse. Why is the second one forbidden?

Both rho meson and pi meson, are a triplet in isospin space, so I don't see a problem there. But how are both allowed with respect to conservation of impulse, if the impulse of rho is 1, and of pions is 0 (impulse as in J=L+S)?

Is it just because the Clebsch-Gordan coefficient in the second decay is 0 and in the first it's \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}?

The final state is a two-particle state, so it is possible to have nonzero orbital angular momentum (##L\neq 0##). However, once you identify the possible orbital state, you must also consider the symmetry of the wavefunction under exchange of the ##\pi##s.

So the coupling of two pi0 is forrbidden in the isospin coupling? Is that the answer?

This is not an issue, since that coupling exists. In fact, ##\rho^0\to \pi^0\pi^0\gamma## is an allowed decay channel.
 
Thank you :)
 

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