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## Main Question or Discussion Point

So, I was thinking about Euler's formula, and I noticed something interesting. Based on the fact that [tex]e^\frac{i\pi}{2} = 1 [/tex], it seems as though [tex]\frac{i\pi}{2} = 0[/tex]. However, this doesn't make any sense. Not only can I not see how this expression could possibly equal 0, but that would imply that [tex]i\pi = 0[/tex] which would in turn imply that [tex]e^{i\pi} = 1[/tex] when it, of course, is equal to -1. At the moment, I have only a very basic understanding of complex/imaginary numbers and their properties, but it seems to me that the implication here is that [tex]\ln(1)[/tex] is not uniquely equal to zero. Is there something I'm missing that shows that this is not the case? If I am correct in this conclusion, is this because of some property of imaginary numbers that I don't know about yet?