Questions about the formula for acceleration

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Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity over time, leading to the formula a = Δv/Δt. While the units of distance/time² may appear similar to those of acceleration, they do not represent the same physical concept. The SUVAT equations apply specifically to scenarios of constant acceleration, and rearranging these equations can yield different forms for acceleration, such as a = 2s/t² under certain conditions. It is important to note that average velocity and average acceleration are distinct, and combining their equations is not valid. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for correctly interpreting motion and acceleration in physics.
Crovati
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Homework Statement

I know that acceleration = change in velocity/change in time. Wouldn’t acceleration therefore also = distance/time2?

I thought this was true until i learned the formula for motion
s=ut*1/2at2
where
s = distance and u = initial velocity

Here, if you re-arrange the formula (and assuming that initial velocity =0), a= 2s/t2

So which of these formulas are right?

And if i were to create a graph where the slope can help find the acceleration, should i graph 2*distance vs t2 or just distance vs t2?
 
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Average acceleration is ##\Delta v / \Delta t##, and average velocity is ##\Delta s / \Delta t##. But ##\Delta v## is not average velocity, so you cannot combine those two equations.
The SUVAT formula you quote is only valid for constant acceleration.
 
Last edited:
Assume constant acceleration, using va for v average:

v1 = v0 + a Δt
va = 1/2 (v0 + v1)
s1 = s0 + va Δt = s0 + 1/2 (v0 + v1) Δt = s0 + 1/2 (v0 + (v0 + a Δt)) Δt = s0 + v0 Δt + 1/2 a Δt^2
 
Crovati said:

Homework Statement

I know that acceleration = change in velocity/change in time. Wouldn’t acceleration therefore also = distance/time2?

Acceleration IS equal to distance/time2

distance = meters (or m)
time = seconds (s)

The units for acceleration is: m/s2
 
No, the fact that is has the same units does not mean that they are the same.
Work is not torque even though both are measured in N*m.

Acceleration is a measure of change in speed. If the speed is constant, you have no acceleration even if there is some distance traveled in some time.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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