Quick check on simple supremum/infimum problems

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the supremum and infimum of two sets: one defined by the cosine of factorials of integers and the other by the intersection of intervals. Participants are exploring concepts related to boundedness and the existence of supremum and infimum in the context of real numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to analyze the boundedness of the sets and the existence of supremum and infimum. Questions arise regarding the correct interpretation of the intervals and the behavior of the cosine function at factorials. There is also discussion on how to demonstrate that certain values can be approached by the sequences involved.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing examination of the correctness of the initial interpretations of the problems. Some participants have pointed out potential errors in the setup, particularly regarding the intersection of intervals being empty. Others are questioning how to rigorously show the behavior of the cosine function in relation to its bounds.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the implications of the definitions of supremum and infimum, particularly in cases where the sets may be empty or incorrectly defined. There is a focus on the need for formal proofs rather than intuitive reasoning.

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Homework Statement


Please just tell if I'm right or wrong on these. I think they should be fairly easy, but I don't want to say too much and end up looking like an idiot in case there is a mistake =p

We are supposed to say if it's bounded above and/or below. Also to indicate supremum and infimum if they exist

Homework Equations


(a) {n \in Z: \cos n!}

Not sure how to do this, but intersection runs from 1 to infinity
(b) \bigcap (\frac{1}{n},1+\frac{1}{n})

The Attempt at a Solution


On (a) I'm assuming that n can only be positive integers (not sure what the factorial of a negative integer means). Then it forms a subset of Reals (-1, 1) (1 and -1 are not included since factorials are not 0 or irrational) with some gaps.
Thus it's bounded above and below and supremum = 1 and infimum = -1

On (b), the intersection turns out to be just {1}. This is bounded above and below and infimum = supremum = 1.
 
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I think you entered in problem (b) wrong. If it is as you say, then the first interval is (1,2), which does not include 1. Did you mean (1-1/n, 1+1/n)?

As for (a), if you say that 1 and -1 are the sup and inf, then you need to show that cos n! gets arbitrarily close to 1 and -1.
 
Oops, correct you are.

#1b is wrong, the set is empty hehehe. Thus no supremum and no infimum.

And how would I show (a)? The definition of the limit? Then I would probably need to use trig identities correct?
 
Indeed, as masnevets points out, in (b) the intersection is empty. In that case (I think) you would have that all real numbers serve as both upper and lower bounds, so that there would be no sup and no inf. Check it again.

To enlarge upon masnevets other point - for (a), if you suspect that the sup = 1 and the inf = -1 you would need to verify that |n! -Pi*k| can be made as small as desired for both an odd and an even value of k. I don't know if that is possible.
 
Last edited:
Mathdope said:
Indeed, as masnevets points out, in (b) the intersection is empty. In that case (I think) you would have that all real numbers serve as both upper and lower bounds, so that there would be no sup and no inf. Check it again.

To enlarge upon masnevets other point - for (a), if you suspect that the sup = 1 and the inf = -1 you would need to verify that |n! -Pi*k| can be made as small as desired for both an odd and an even value of k. I don't know if that is possible.


The empty is thus bounded above and below correct?

Also, that's what I was sort of thinking for (a) and I also don't know if it's possible. More formally, I believe I need to show that the max and min of the set of limits of all convergent subsequences are respectively 1 and -1. I'm not sure if I can, because as you have said it comes down to showing that |n! -Pi*k| can be made as small as desired, which seems intuitively true, but intutition is not a proof.
 

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