- #1

entropy1

Gold Member

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If we have a series of, say, twenty coin tosses, then each discernable specific series of outcomes has equal probability to occur. However, there is only one discernable specific series consisting of twenty 1's, while there are many more discernable series consisting of ten 1's and ten 0's.

So is that the cause that it is more probable for a 50/50 probability random variable to score a series consisting of as much 1's as 0's, than of a series of more 1's than 0's or vice versa, thus reflecting its probability in the series it produces?

Thanks.

Update: I realized that I did not take de probability value of the random value into account, such as for example 70/30 or something like that.

So is that the cause that it is more probable for a 50/50 probability random variable to score a series consisting of as much 1's as 0's, than of a series of more 1's than 0's or vice versa, thus reflecting its probability in the series it produces?

Thanks.

Update: I realized that I did not take de probability value of the random value into account, such as for example 70/30 or something like that.

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