Random Variables and Transformations

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around random variables and their transformations, specifically focusing on the derivation of regions for transformed variables and the implications of independence in probability density functions (pdfs). Participants are exploring the properties of joint distributions and moment generating functions (mgfs).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to understand the derivation of the region for transformed variables y1, y2, and y3, questioning how the independence of the original variables X1, X2, and X3 affects the solution. There are inquiries about the joint pdfs and the conditions under which the mgf is defined.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the behavior of the transformed variables and the conditions for the mgf's validity. There is ongoing exploration of the implications of parameter ranges and the existence of derivatives at specific points.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of a homework assignment, referencing specific problems and pdfs, while also considering the implications of independence and the behavior of functions at limits.

Artusartos
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In the last question in this link:

http://pages.uoregon.edu/csinclai/teaching/Fall2009/files/hw8.pdf

1) I did not understand how they got the region for y1, y2, and y3...

2) How would the solution be different (or not possible) if X1, X2, and X3 were not iid?

Thanks in advance
 
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Artusartos said:
1) I did not understand how they got the region for y1, y2, and y3...
Clearly each is >0. Y1 = X1/(X1+X2), with X1 and X2 both > 0. So X1 < X1+X2, so Y1 < 1. Y1 approaches 1 as X2 approaches zero. Etc.

The proof omits the derivation of the exp[-(y1...] term. If you dig into that you'll find it needed the joint pdfs of the X vars, and it assumes they're iid in the process.
 
haruspex said:
Clearly each is >0. Y1 = X1/(X1+X2), with X1 and X2 both > 0. So X1 < X1+X2, so Y1 < 1. Y1 approaches 1 as X2 approaches zero. Etc.

The proof omits the derivation of the exp[-(y1...] term. If you dig into that you'll find it needed the joint pdfs of the X vars, and it assumes they're iid in the process.

Thanks a lot :)

I have one more question (if you don't mind)...

Let f(x1, x2, x3) = e-(x1+x2+x3), 0<x1,2,3<infinity, zero elsewhere be a joint pdf of X1, X2, X3.

Compute P(X1= X2< X3)

Determine the joint mgf.

So this is the integral that we need to integrate, right (for the mgf)?

\int_0^{\infty} \int_0^{\infty} \int_0^{\infty} e^{x_1(t_1-1)} e^{x_2(t_2-1)} e^{x_3(t_3-1)} dx_1 dx_2 dx_3

But I'm having some trouble with this, because this is what I get after integrating...

\frac{1}{t_1-1}e^{x_1(t_1-1)} |_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{t_2-1}e^{x_2(t_2-1)} |_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{t_3-1}e^{x_3(t_3-1)} |_0^{\infty}...but if we plug in infinity to \frac{1}{t_1-1}e^{\infty(t_1-1)}...don't we get infinity, since e increases forever?
 
Artusartos said:
if we plug in infinity to \frac{1}{t_1-1}e^{\infty(t_1-1)}...don't we get infinity, since e increases forever?
Not if t1 < ... what?
 
haruspex said:
Not if t1 < ... what?

If t1<1...
 
Artusartos said:
If t1<1...
Right. It's quite usual that the mgf would only be defined for a range of the parameter, such as |t| < 1. To make use of it, you only need all the derivatives to exist at 0.
 
haruspex said:
Right. It's quite usual that the mgf would only be defined for a range of the parameter, such as |t| < 1. To make use of it, you only need all the derivatives to exist at 0.

Thanks...
 

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