Real analysis - unions and intersections

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around set theory concepts, specifically focusing on the properties of functions and their inverses in relation to unions and intersections of sets. The original poster presents four problems involving a function f and its inverse g, questioning the validity of certain set equalities.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to prove set equalities related to the function f and its inverse g, particularly exploring the containment relationships for intersections. Some participants question the assumptions regarding the properties of f, specifically whether it is one-to-one and onto. Others suggest considering counterexamples to clarify the relationships.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants providing guidance on how to approach the problems, particularly in identifying counterexamples. There is an acknowledgment of differing interpretations regarding the nature of the function f and its implications for the problems presented.

Contextual Notes

There is a potential misunderstanding regarding the nature of the function f, specifically whether it is assumed to be one-to-one and onto, which affects the validity of the statements being analyzed. The original poster's notation and approach have also been noted as somewhat unclear, which may impact the discussion.

badsis
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Hi,

I have four similar problems that I am not sure how to do: Given: A1 and A2 are in X, B1 and B2 are in Y f: X->Y, g - inverse of f
I have to either prove or if false find counterargument
1. f(A1 U A2) = f(A1) U f(A2)
2. f(A1 n A2) = f(A1) n f(A2)
3. g(-1)(B1 U B2) = g(B1) U g(B2)
4. g(B1 n B2) = g(B1) n f(B2)

I started doing 2. I was able to show that f(A1 n A2) C=(is contained in) f(A1) n f(A2):
let x € f(A1) and x € f(A2)
since (A1 n A2) <=A1, x€f(A1)
since (A1 n A2) <=A2, x€f(A2)
=> x € f(A1 n A2), x € f(A1) n f(A2), i.e. (A1 n A2) C= f(A1) n f(A2)

But I am not sure how to show the other way, i.e. that f(A1) n f(A2) C= (A1 n A2), in order to conclude that both expressions are equal. Or are they equal at all?
 
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Are you saying that you are given that f has an inverse- that f is one-to-one and onto- or are you saying that (3) and (4) ask about f-1 of the sets? Those are very different things!
 
This is set theory, not real analysis. The first one should be straightforward. Your notation is sort of hard to follow for 2, but that is the correct containment direction you concluded. Can you try coming up with a simple counterexample for the reverse direction? Consider perhaps a set A containing distinct elements a1 and a2, and let A1 = {a1} and A2 = {a2} and think of the simplest functions possible.
 
Ok,
That worked.

Thanks!
 

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