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Reducing a circuit to a single impendence value

  1. Feb 1, 2014 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
    Find Vout over a range of frequencies


    2. Relevant equations
    V = IZ


    3. The attempt at a solution
    I'm trying to equate Vin to Vout using equivalent impedences. I have some python code to handle the numbers but want to be sure my algebra and circuit reudction are correct because I'm getting good-ish values from the script but I'm still not positive they're right.


    Click for full res

    edit: I just saw that I'm missing a bridge between the upper and lower lines on the second to last diagram. ZEQ and Z3 should be in parallel.
    6TfCSyGl.jpg
     
    Last edited: Feb 1, 2014
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 1, 2014 #2

    Nugso

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    Gold Member

    Hi cowmoo32, I'm no expert, but it looks like in your equivalent circuit(2nd circuit, that is) R3 and C1 have the same current, but in the first circut it's clear that R3's current is 'higher' than C1's.
     
  4. Feb 1, 2014 #3
    I could kick myself. For some reason I've had it in my head that the voltage drop would be across the two Vin leads and the two Vout leads, but you're right. I should be measuring voltage across Vin to Vout.

    edit: Seeing that makes things even harder. Now I have no idea how to reduce it.
     
    Last edited: Feb 1, 2014
  5. Feb 1, 2014 #4
    Does this work?
    MBNcHyYl.jpg
     
  6. Feb 2, 2014 #5

    Nugso

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    Gold Member

    Hi. Well, I don't see why Z1 and ZR1 are parallel.
     
  7. Feb 2, 2014 #6
    Right again. It was a long day yesterday. Thanks!
     
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