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Regarding limits in Real Analysis

  1. Jul 20, 2011 #1
    Question: Suppose that f(x)>0 on (0,1) and that lim as x goes to 0 exists for the function. Show that lim as x goes to 0 for the function is greater than or equal to 0.

    So I know that intuitively that this is true for obvious reasons, but I can not think of a clever way to set up the proof for this problem.

    Any ideas??

    Thanks!
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 20, 2011 #2
    Say L is the limit for the function. Check the consequences of L being less than 0 using the epsilon delta definition of the limit.
     
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