Regrettable definition/notation

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The discussion centers on the differing definitions of "Tensor Product" and "Dyadic Product" of vectors, highlighting a mathematical definition as a bilinear function on V^*×V^* and a physical definition as a linear operator on V. The confusion arises from the compatibility of these definitions, particularly in the context of scalar products. It is noted that while the mathematical definition does not require an internal product, the dyadic product does, leading to a natural isomorphism between V* and V in finite-dimensional spaces. Ultimately, both definitions can coincide when the internal product is considered.
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hello, I would like to hear some comments about this situation. There seems to be two incompatible definitions concerning "Tensor Product" and "Dyadic product" of two vectors. The mathematical definition states tha a\otimes b is a bilinear funtion defined on V^*\times V^* with values in R while the dyadic product and also sometimes called tensor product written as ab and sometimes a\otimes b is defined as a linear operator defined on V with values in V
I reached this conclution after looking up for the mathematical definition in "Tensor Analysis on Manifolds" by Bishop and for the defintion used in physics in "Mechanics" by Symon, "Continuum Mechanics" by Chadwick,"Continuum Mechanics" by Spencer
 
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You'll probably find that the bilinear function can be written as an operator.
 
were the bilinear function defined on VxV or V*xV it would be possible but since it is denfined on V*xV* I don't know how to do it.
 
facenian said:
hello, I would like to hear some comments about this situation. There seems to be two incompatible definitions concerning "Tensor Product" and "Dyadic product" of two vectors. The mathematical definition states tha a\otimes b is a bilinear funtion defined on V^*\times V^* with values in R while the dyadic product and also sometimes called tensor product written as ab and sometimes a\otimes b is defined as a linear operator defined on V with values in V
I reached this conclution after looking up for the mathematical definition in "Tensor Analysis on Manifolds" by Bishop and for the defintion used in physics in "Mechanics" by Symon, "Continuum Mechanics" by Chadwick,"Continuum Mechanics" by Spencer

I can understand the first definition, but not the second. What I would think would be correct is this:

The tensor product of vectors a and b is a bilinear function of type (V^*\times V^*) \rightarrow R, which is also a linear function of type V^*\rightarrow V

(I'm using A \rightarrow B to mean the type of functions that take objects of type A and return objects of type B)
 
stevendaryl said:
I can understand the first definition, but not the second. What I would think would be correct is this:

The tensor product of vectors a and b is a bilinear function of type (V^*\times V^*) \rightarrow R, which is also a linear function of type V^*\rightarrow V

(I'm using A \rightarrow B to mean the type of functions that take objects of type A and return objects of type B)

The definition states the action of ab on a vector c through the equation:

a\otimes b (c)= (b.c)a where b.c is the escalar product
 
facenian said:
The definition states the action of ab on a vector c through the equation:

a\otimes b (c)= (b.c)a where b.c is the escalar product

Ah! Then I understand the two definitions. They aren't exactly the same, but they are both natural. If you have a scalar product, then there is NO difference between V and V^*. So all the following are equivalent:

  1. (V^* \times V^*) \rightarrow R
  2. V^* \rightarrow (V^* \rightarrow R)
  3. V^* \rightarrow V^{**}
  4. V^* \rightarrow V
  5. V \rightarrow V

1-3 are always equivalent. 4 is equivalent for finite-dimensional vector spaces, and 5 is equivalent for finite dimensional vectors spaces with a scalar product.
 
How is 3 equivalent to 1 or 2?
 
dauto said:
How is 3 equivalent to 1 or 2?

For any vector space V, the dual space V^* is defined to be the linear functions of type V \rightarrow R.
 
Right!
 
  • #10
Simon Bridge said:
You'll probably find that the bilinear function can be written as an operator.
Yes, that's right. The piece of information I was not using is that the diad definition presupposes the existence of an internal product while the mathematical definition of tensor product does not. So taking into consideration the internal product we have a natural isomorphism between V* and V and finally both definitions coincide
 
  • #11
Well done: I knew you'd get there :)
 
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