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Relation between mass and wave function

  1. May 21, 2013 #1
    We know that electrons are nearly massless so their wave funtion is quite easily detectable.So is there any mathematical relation between the mass of the body and the intensity of the wave it exhibits?

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  3. May 21, 2013 #2

    de Broglie wavelength [itex]\lambda=\frac{h}{p}=\frac{h}{mv}[/itex] ,where h is Planck's constant, m is mass of particle and v is velocity, may be of your interest. In the scale of order [itex]\lambda[/itex] you will observe wave properties.
  4. May 21, 2013 #3

    but i want a relationship between mass and intensity of wave exhibited by it.
  5. May 21, 2013 #4


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    It is not correct.We don't detect wave functions.we can't observe them,neither directly nor indirectly.Some interpretations of QM even deny its physical reality!
    We only can test the predictions of QM.The norm squared of the wave function gives the probability for a quantity to have a certain value and experimenters test those probabilities by measuring ensemble averages of that quantity.

    The only point is that,Quantum effects become important only when the typical momentums get smaller and smaller.
    Last edited: May 21, 2013
  6. May 21, 2013 #5

    One electron double slit experiment by Akira Tonomura shows that intensity of the wave depends on numbers of particles involved. Momentum relates wavelength. Numbers relates intensity. However mass does not have direct relationship to wave.
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 25, 2014
  7. May 21, 2013 #6

    thanks for the replies
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