Relative Frequencies of Payment Methods for Purchases

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the analysis of relative frequencies of payment methods for purchases categorized by amount. The original poster presents a table of frequencies for cash, credit, and debit payments across different purchase amounts, along with specific questions regarding proportions, conditional probabilities, and independence of events.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to calculate the proportion of purchases made in cash and the conditional probability of credit payments for purchases over $100. They also explore the independence of payment method and purchase amount, raising questions about their calculations and reasoning.

Discussion Status

Some participants affirm the original poster's calculations, indicating agreement with the reasoning presented. There is also a shift in focus as the original poster introduces a new question regarding a probability relation, prompting further exploration of conditional probabilities.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential typos and clarify definitions related to conditional probability and independence, indicating a careful examination of the concepts involved.

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Homework Statement


[/B]
Relative frequencies of amount purchased and method of payment

Cash Credit Debit
$<20 .09 .03 .04
$20-$100 .05 .21 .18
>$100 .03 .23 .14(a) What proportion of purchases are paid for in cash?

(b) Given that a purchase is for more than $100, what is the probability that it is paid for by credit?

(c) Are payment by credit and amount > $100 independent events?

Homework Equations



Conditional probability, independence, etc.

The Attempt at a Solution



(a) .09 + .05 + .03 = .17

(b) P(credit | >$100) = P(credit ∩ >$100)/P(>$100) = .23/.40 = .575

(c) Independent if P(credit ∩ >$100) = P(credit)P(>$100) = .23.

P(credit)P(>$100) = 0.47*0.40 = .188. not independent.Does that look right?
 
Last edited:
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It looks right to me.
 
andrewkirk said:
It looks right to me.

Thanks. I initially overcomplicated it and then thought about it a bit more carefully.

I have another question. Is this a true relation P(~E | F) + P(E | F) = 1?
 
Actually, I had a typo in there. It should be right now.
 
You can reason that one out using the measures:
$$P(E| F)\equiv\frac{P(E\cap F)}{P(F)}$$
So
$$P(E| F)+P(\sim E| F)\equiv\frac{P(E\cap F)}{P(F)}+\frac{P((\sim E)\cap F)}{P(F)}
=\frac{P(E\cap F)+P((\sim E)\cap F)}{P(F)}
$$

The two sets in the numerator are disjoint, so you can use the rule for the probability/measure of the union of two disjoint sets to convert the numerator to a single P(something).
 

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