Residue Theorem with real zero

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SUMMARY

The integral \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(\pi x)}{1-4x^2} dx evaluates to \frac{\pi}{4} despite the residue at x=\pm\frac{1}{2} being zero. This discrepancy arises because the function \cos(\pi x) grows exponentially in the upper half-plane, preventing the use of a semicircular contour for evaluation. Instead, the integral can be rewritten as I = \frac{1}{2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{i \pi x}}{1-4x^2} \, dx, allowing for proper evaluation in the upper half-plane where the residues do not vanish.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Residue Theorem in complex analysis
  • Familiarity with contour integration techniques
  • Knowledge of exponential functions and their behavior in the complex plane
  • Basic skills in evaluating improper integrals
NEXT STEPS
  • Study advanced applications of the Residue Theorem in complex analysis
  • Learn about contour integration and its various techniques
  • Explore the behavior of exponential functions in the complex plane
  • Investigate improper integrals and their convergence criteria
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, particularly those studying complex analysis, as well as educators and anyone interested in advanced integration techniques.

DCN
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Homework Statement



Find \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(\pi x)}{1-4x^2} dx

Homework Equations



The residue theorem

The Attempt at a Solution



The residue of this function at $$x=\pm\frac{1}{2}$$ is zero. Therefore shouldn't the integral be zero, if you take a closed path as a hemisphere in the upper half of the complex plane? Yet the integral evaluates to $$\pi/4$$

I am completely lost.
 
Last edited:
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DCN said:

Homework Statement



Find \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(\pi x)}{1-4x^2} dx

Homework Equations



The residue theorem

The Attempt at a Solution



The residue of this function at $$x=\pm\frac{1}{2}$$ is zero. Therefore shouldn't the integral be zero, if you take a closed path as a hemisphere in the upper half of the complex plane? Yet the integral evaluates to $$\pi/4$$

I am completely lost.

You cannot complete the integral along a semicircle in the upper half-plane because the function ##\cos(\pi x)## grows exponentially large when you let the imaginary part of ##x## go to infinity. However, you can instead write the integral as
I = \frac{1}{2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(\pi x)}{1-4x^2} \, dx = \frac{1}{2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{i \pi x}}{1-4x^2} \, dx
because the imaginary part of the second integrand is an odd function, which integrates to zero.

That last form can be completed in the upper half-plane, and when you do that the residues do not vanish.
 
Last edited:

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