Rolles Theorem/ Mean Value Theorem + First Derivative Test

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of Rolle's Theorem and the Mean Value Theorem in the context of a twice-differentiable function defined on a closed interval [a,b]. The original poster presents a problem involving conditions under which certain statements about the function and its derivatives hold true.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to determine the validity of three statements regarding the function based on the conditions of Rolle's Theorem. Some participants question the interpretation of the conditions, particularly whether the equality of the function values at the endpoints is necessary. Others explore the implications of having a critical point where the derivative is zero.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the statements and conditions of Rolle's Theorem, with some providing counterexamples to clarify misunderstandings. There is a recognition of the need to accurately apply the theorem's conditions, and some guidance has been offered regarding the implications of the statements presented.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing discussion about the necessity of the endpoints being equal for the application of Rolle's Theorem, as well as the implications of having a critical point in relation to relative extrema and points of inflection.

carlodelmundo
Messages
133
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Suppose that f(x) is a twice-differentiable function defined on the closed interval [a,b]. If f'(c) = 0 for a < c < b, which of the following must be true?

I. f(a) = f(b)

II. f has a relative extremum at x = c.

III. f has a point of inflection at x = c.

Homework Equations



Rolles Theorem states that there is a c such that f'(c) = 0 between [a,b] if f(x) is continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b).


The Attempt at a Solution



By Rolles Theorem, statement "I" must be correct. (That is, the endpoints are equal to each other). Is this correct?

I also put statement "II" as correct because since f'(c) = 0 for a < c < b... c must be a critical point or relative extremum. Question though: does this mean there are other points between a and b where f'(c) = 0 ?

For statement "III", I said this was incorrect. It's twice differentiable yes, but we don't know if f(x) has a point of inflection at x = c.

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You said: "if f'(c) = 0 for a < c < b."
Did you mean for all c between a and b, or for some c between a and b?

Because in the first case, for example I is true (although I think it follows from the principal theorem of analysis) while in the second case it is not (you can easily think of a counter example for some specific a, b, c and function f).
 
carlodelmundo said:
Rolles Theorem states that there is a c such that f'(c) = 0 between [a,b] if f(x) is continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b).

I think there is one more condition here that f(a) = f(b)
Otherwise there is the counter example of f(x)=ex
 
Thank you both. aniketp, you're right. f(a) = f(b) is the last condition... I overlooked it... and since a < b, they can't be equal to each other.
 
Are you saying that if a < b then f(a) cannot be equal to f(b) ?
 
carlodelmundo said:

Homework Statement



Suppose that f(x) is a twice-differentiable function defined on the closed interval [a,b]. If f'(c) = 0 for a < c < b, which of the following must be true?

I. f(a) = f(b)

II. f has a relative extremum at x = c.

III. f has a point of inflection at x = c.

Homework Equations



Rolles Theorem states that there is a c such that f'(c) = 0 between [a,b] if f(x) is continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b).


The Attempt at a Solution



By Rolles Theorem, statement "I" must be correct. (That is, the endpoints are equal to each other). Is this correct?

I also put statement "II" as correct because since f'(c) = 0 for a < c < b... c must be a critical point or relative extremum. Question though: does this mean there are other points between a and b where f'(c) = 0 ?

For statement "III", I said this was incorrect. It's twice differentiable yes, but we don't know if f(x) has a point of inflection at x = c.

Thanks!
As for "I", you are confusing the theorem with its converse. Rolle's theorem says that if f(a)= f(b) (and other conditions) then there exist c such that f'(c)= 0. Saying that some f'(c)= 0 does NOT means that f(a) must equal f(b).

Consider f(x)= x^2, a= -1, b= 2, c= 0. f'(0)= 0 but f(-1)\ne f(2). Or g(x)= x^3, a= -1, b= 2. Again g'(0)= 0 but g(-1)\ne g(2).

f has a relative extremum at 0 but not an inflection point. g has an inflection point at 0 but not a relative extremum. I would say none of those are necessarily true.
 
Thank you all! And yes... I did confuse Rolle's Theorem. Thanks for the heads up
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K