Rudin Problem 2.7: Proving Closure of Unions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem from Rudin concerning the closure properties of unions of subsets in a metric space. The original poster presents two parts: proving that the closure of a finite union of sets equals the union of their closures, and showing that the closure of an infinite union is a subset of the union of their closures, with an example demonstrating that this inclusion can be proper.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of closure in metric spaces and explore the nuances of limit points. There is an attempt to clarify the reasoning behind the inclusion of limit points in the closure of unions. Some participants question the validity of certain steps in the original poster's argument, particularly regarding the oscillation of points between different sets.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, providing insights and examples. There is recognition of potential flaws in reasoning, particularly in the argument for part (a). An example has been suggested to illustrate the proper subset relationship in part (b), and some participants are seeking further clarification on specific points of reasoning.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the properties of metric spaces and the behavior of limit points. The discussion includes considerations of sequences of epsilon neighborhoods and their intersections with unions of sets, highlighting the complexities involved in proving closure properties.

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Homework Statement



Let A_1, A_2, A_2,... be subsets of a metric space.
(a) If B_{n}=\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}A_{i}, prove that \bar{B_{n}}= \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bar{A_{i}} for n=1,2,3,...
(b) If B=\bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}A_{i}, prove that \bar{B} \subset \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}\bar{A_{i}},
Show by example this inclusion is proper.
[/B]

Homework Equations



If E is a subset of a metric space, then the closure of E,
\bar{E}=E \bigcup \acute{E}, where \acute{E} is the set of all limit points of E.

For a subset E of a metric space X, a point p \in X is a limit point if and only if
\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists q \in B(p;\epsilon) \bigcap E : q \neq p

The Attempt at a Solution



Now I think I've got part (a) and (b) nailed down, but I'm having trouble thinking of an example for a proper subset. Here's what I have thus far...

Suppose x \in \bar{B_{n}}, then x \in B_{n} or x is a limit point for B_{n}.
If x \in {B_{n}}, then x \in \bigcup_{i=1}^{n} A_{i}, then \exists i, x \in A_{i}, so \exists i, x \in \bar{A_{i}}.
If x is a limit point, then
\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists y \in B(x;\epsilon) \bigcap B_{n}: y \neq x, so \forall \epsilon > 0, \exists y \in B(x;\epsilon) \bigcap (\bigcup_{i=1}^{n} A_{i}): y \neq x, then
\exists i,\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists y \in B(x;\epsilon) \bigcap A_{i}: y \neq x, then
\exists i, x\in \bar{A_{i}}, so x \in \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bar{A_{i}}

Suppose x \in \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bar{A_{i}}, then \exists i, x \in A_{j} or for some i x is a limit point.
If \exists i, x \in A_{i}, then x \in \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}A_{i}=B_{n}.
If x is a limit point for some A sub i, then x is a limit point for \bigcup A_{i}=B_{n}.

For part (b), I did the same thing, but replaced B_{n} with B and in the union I replaced n with infinity.

Now, I'm having some difficulty coming up with an example that would show B is a proper subset of the union of an infinite number of A sub i's.

Any hints or corrections would be much appreciated.
 
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Mogarrr said:

Homework Statement



Let A_1, A_2, A_2,... be subsets of a metric space.
(a) If B_{n}=\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}A_{i}, prove that \bar{B_{n}}= \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bar{A_{i}} for n=1,2,3,...
(b) If B=\bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}A_{i}, prove that \bar{B} \subset \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}\bar{A_{i}},
Show by example this inclusion is proper.
[/B]

Homework Equations



If E is a subset of a metric space, then the closure of E,
\bar{E}=E \bigcup \acute{E}, where \acute{E} is the set of all limit points of E.

For a subset E of a metric space X, a point p \in X is a limit point if and only if
\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists q \in B(p;\epsilon) \bigcap E : q \neq p

The Attempt at a Solution



Now I think I've got part (a) and (b) nailed down, but I'm having trouble thinking of an example for a proper subset. Here's what I have thus far...

Suppose x \in \bar{B_{n}}, then x \in B_{n} or x is a limit point for B_{n}.
If x \in {B_{n}}, then x \in \bigcup_{i=1}^{n} A_{i}, then \exists i, x \in A_{i}, so \exists i, x \in \bar{A_{i}}.
If x is a limit point, then
\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists y \in B(x;\epsilon) \bigcap B_{n}: y \neq x, so \forall \epsilon > 0, \exists y \in B(x;\epsilon) \bigcap (\bigcup_{i=1}^{n} A_{i}): y \neq x, then
\exists i,\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists y \in B(x;\epsilon) \bigcap A_{i}: y \neq x, then
\exists i, x\in \bar{A_{i}}, so x \in \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bar{A_{i}}

Suppose x \in \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bar{A_{i}}, then \exists i, x \in A_{j} or for some i x is a limit point.
If \exists i, x \in A_{i}, then x \in \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}A_{i}=B_{n}.
If x is a limit point for some A sub i, then x is a limit point for \bigcup A_{i}=B_{n}.

For part (b), I did the same thing, but replaced B_{n} with B and in the union I replaced n with infinity.

Now, I'm having some difficulty coming up with an example that would show B is a proper subset of the union of an infinite number of A sub i's.

Any hints or corrections would be much appreciated.

I can see a fixable flaw in your argument for (a). For simplicity, take ##n = 2##; that is not a loss of generality, since you can then get the general case of finite ##n## by induction.

Anyway, say ##x \in \bar{B}_2## is in the boundary of ##B_2## but not in ##B_2## itself. Let ##\epsilon_1 > \epsilon_2 > \cdots \to 0##. For ##\epsilon_i## there is a point ##x_i \in B_2 \cap N(x,\epsilon_i)##. It is conceivable that we could have, for example, ##x_1 \in \ A_1, x_2 \in A_2, x_3 \in A_1, x_4 \in A_2, \ldots## so the sequence ##\{x_i\}## is not in a single set ##A_1## or ##A_2##, but, instead, oscillates back and forth between the two. In that case you would need to do more work to conclude that ##x## is in ##\bar{A}_1 \cup \bar{A}_2##. It can be done, but some extra steps are needed; I think the fact that you are working an a metric space matters a lot here.
 
Mogarrr said:

Homework Statement



Let A_1, A_2, A_2,... be subsets of a metric space.
(a) If B_{n}=\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}A_{i}, prove that \bar{B_{n}}= \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bar{A_{i}} for n=1,2,3,...
(b) If B=\bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}A_{i}, prove that \bar{B} \subset \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}\bar{A_{i}},
Show by example this inclusion is proper.
[/B]

Are you sure the inclusion in part (b) is the right way round? Certainly one can show by example that <br /> \bigcup_{i=1}^\infty \bar{A}_i \subsetneq \bar{B} by taking a bijection f : \{1, 2, 3, \dots \} \to \mathbb{Q} (such a bijection exists because the rationals are countable) and setting A_i = \{f(i)\} \subset \mathbb{R}.
 
Ray Vickson said:
I can see a fixable flaw in your argument for (a). For simplicity, take ##n = 2##; that is not a loss of generality, since you can then get the general case of finite ##n## by induction.

Anyway, say ##x \in \bar{B}_2## is in the boundary of ##B_2## but not in ##B_2## itself. Let ##\epsilon_1 > \epsilon_2 > \cdots \to 0##. For ##\epsilon_i## there is a point ##x_i \in B_2 \cap N(x,\epsilon_i)##. It is conceivable that we could have, for example, ##x_1 \in \ A_1, x_2 \in A_2, x_3 \in A_1, x_4 \in A_2, \ldots## so the sequence ##\{x_i\}## is not in a single set ##A_1## or ##A_2##, but, instead, oscillates back and forth between the two. In that case you would need to do more work to conclude that ##x## is in ##\bar{A}_1 \cup \bar{A}_2##. It can be done, but some extra steps are needed; I think the fact that you are working an a metric space matters a lot here.

So what you're saying is that just because \forall \epsilon &gt;0,\exists y \in N(x;\epsilon) \bigcap \bigcup_{i=1}^{n} A_{i}, I can't conclude that \exists i, \forall \epsilon &gt;0,\exists y \in N(x;\epsilon) \bigcap A_{i}?

Would I have to say that for a sequence of epsilons, there is a y in the intersection of the Neighborhood with center x and radius epsilon? I thought about distributing the intersection/union, but that doesn't make much sense to me, intuitively.
 
pasmith,

Wow, really nice example. Am I correct in saying "because each of the singletons have no limit points, the union of the A sub i's are the rationals, but the closure of B is the reals"?

And yes, I was wrong. It should be...

Show by an example, that this inclusion B \supset \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty} A_{i} can be proper.
 
Mogarrr said:
pasmith,

Wow, really nice example. Am I correct in saying "because each of the singletons have no limit points, the union of the A sub i's are the rationals, but the closure of B is the reals"?

The point is not that a singleton has no limit points, but that it contains its only limit point and is therefore closed, so that \bigcup A_i = \bigcup \bar{A}_i. Otherwise you are correct, although you need to explain briefly why \bigcup_{i=1}^\infty \{f(i)\} = \mathbb{Q}.
 
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Mogarrr said:
So what you're saying is that just because \forall \epsilon &gt;0,\exists y \in N(x;\epsilon) \bigcap \bigcup_{i=1}^{n} A_{i}, I can't conclude that \exists i, \forall \epsilon &gt;0,\exists y \in N(x;\epsilon) \bigcap A_{i}?

Would I have to say that for a sequence of epsilons, there is a y in the intersection of the Neighborhood with center x and radius epsilon? I thought about distributing the intersection/union, but that doesn't make much sense to me, intuitively.

You probably can conclude it, but it does not follow right away from what you did; you need some extra steps.
 

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