LagrangeEuler
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Is it necessary for some point ##x## of the function to be saddle that
##f'(x)=0##?
##f'(x)=0##?
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The discussion revolves around the conditions under which a function can have a saddle point, particularly focusing on the implications of the derivative being zero at certain points. Participants explore the relationship between the first derivative, inflection points, and the nature of saddle points in the context of single-variable functions.
Participants express differing views on the necessity of the first derivative being zero for saddle points, with some asserting it is not required while others provide examples that challenge this notion. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the conditions for saddle points in single-variable functions.
There are limitations in the definitions and assumptions regarding saddle points and inflection points, particularly in the context of single-variable functions. The discussion does not resolve the mathematical implications of these concepts.
What you have written isn't clear. For one thing, saddle points aren't applicable to functions of a single variable. For another, do you mean that f'(x) = 0 for some specific value of x? Or do you mean that f'(x) is identically equal to zero?LagrangeEuler said:Is it necessary for some point of the function to be saddle that
##f'(x)=0##?
Yes. Let f(x) = x1/3.LagrangeEuler said:Yes I mean for particular value of ##x##. For some ##x_0## is it possible situation that
##f'(x_0)\neq 0## and that in ##x_0## function has inflection point?