Schrodinger equation dedution step?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the derivation of the Schrödinger equation, specifically focusing on a marked step in its deduction that a participant found unclear. The scope includes theoretical aspects of quantum mechanics and the justification of the momentum operator within the context of wave functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant notes that the step in question involves replacing the energy E with the energy operator, but acknowledges that the deeper reasoning is complex and may be too advanced for beginners.
  • Another participant elaborates that the kinetic energy operator can be derived from the momentum operator, presenting mathematical expressions and questioning the acceptance of the operator's form.
  • There is a discussion about the form of the wave function associated with momentum and its implications for the momentum operator, with references to de Broglie's hypothesis and observed wave-like behavior of particles.
  • A participant expresses confusion about the justification for the linear momentum operator and its relationship to the wave function, prompting further clarification from others.
  • One participant suggests that the importance of the equation ##\hat p \psi = p \psi## lies in its implications for quantum states and measurement, indicating a connection to the broader framework of quantum mechanics.
  • Another participant emphasizes that understanding quantum mechanics often requires knowledge of interconnected concepts, suggesting a cumulative learning process.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying levels of understanding regarding the justification of the momentum operator and its implications. There is no consensus on the clarity of the derivation or the necessity of the assumptions made, indicating ongoing uncertainty and exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Some participants mention that deeper symmetry arguments provide justification for the momentum operator, but these are considered advanced and not suitable for beginners. The discussion reflects a range of assumptions and interpretations regarding the mathematical framework of quantum mechanics.

tsuwal
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My chemistry teacher showed this slide but didn't explained how the marked step in the dedution of the Schrödinger equation. Please help! I really don't know where I can find the answer, it's the first time I see the Schrödinger equation!
 
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It comes from replacing the E in the first equation by the energy operator. Check out:
http://www.eng.fsu.edu/~dommelen/quantum/style_a/ops.html

As to why - that's a very deep question. It has an answer, and a mathematically very beautiful one to do with symmetries, but for a first brush with QM its a bit too advanced. At this stage its simply best to accept it. If you want to check it out see Chapter 3 - Quantum Mechanics- A Modern Development by Ballentine - but for now I wouldn't worry about it.

Thanks
Bill
 
bhobba said:
It comes from replacing the E in the first equation by the energy operator.

More precisely, the kinetic energy operator.

If we accept that the momentum p corresponds to the operator

$$\hat p = -i \hbar \frac {\partial}{\partial x} = -\frac{ih}{2\pi}\frac {\partial}{\partial x}$$

then from p = mv and ##K = \frac{1}{2}mv^2##, we can get

$$\hat K = \frac{\hat p^2}{2m} = - \frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac {\partial^2}{\partial x^2}
=-\frac{h^2}{8 \pi^2 m} \frac {\partial^2}{\partial x^2}$$

But why should we accept that particular form for ##\hat p##?

If we accept that a particle with momentum p has a wave function of the form

$$\psi = A e^{i(kx - \omega t)} = Ae^{i(\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}x - \omega t)}
= Ae^{i(\frac{2\pi p}{h}x - \omega t)} = Ae^{i(\frac{p}{\hbar}x - \omega t)}$$

then

$$\hat p \psi = -i \hbar \frac {\partial}{\partial x} \left[ Ae^{i(\frac{p}{\hbar}x - \omega t)} \right]
= p Ae^{i(\frac{p}{\hbar}x - \omega t)} = p \psi$$

But why should we accept that a particle with momentum p has a wave function of that form? Basically because we observe wavelike aspects of particle beams (diffraction and interference) that agree with de Broglie's hypothesis that ##\lambda = h / p##; and that is the generic (complex) wave function. (for one spatial dimension, of course)

And because the full-blown QM that we develop from this starting point (Schrödinger's equation etc.) makes predictions that agree with experiment, so far.
 
Thanks! You guys are awesome but i still don't get it why the last equation justifies the linear momentum operator.

why this

[itex]\hat{p}\Psi=p\Psi[/itex]

makes justifies the linear momentum operator?
 
Not 100% sure what your issue is but any wave function by means of a Fourier transform can be put in the form of an integral of functions Jtbell gave. By moving the operator under the integral sign it can be applied to any wave function.

But like I said in my previous post the real justification lies in much deeper symmetry arguments that are bit more advanced than is desirable to give in a first brush with QM. My suggestion is at this stage don't worry too much about it but when you get a bit more advanced get a hold of Ballentine's book and read the first three chapters where the full detail and justification of this stuff is given.

Thanks
Bill
 
I think tsuwal is simply asking, why is ##\hat p \psi = p \psi## important? Or, why do we want the momentum operator to give us that result?

My answer would be that as tsuwal gets further into QM, and learns more about things like operators and expectation values, he will see that it can be shown that if an operator ##\hat Q## represents some physical quantity, and if ##\psi## satisfies the equation ##\hat Q \psi = Q \psi##, where Q is some value of that quantity, then the quantum state represented by ##\psi## definitely (without any uncertainty) has the value Q for that quantity.

Here, we're assuming that ##\psi = Ae^{i(\frac{p}{\hbar}x - \omega t)}## is the appropriate wave function for a definite momentum p, and using the condition ##\hat p \psi = p \psi## to deduce the form of ##\hat p##.

About forty years ago, the professor in our second-year "introductory modern physics" course told us that "you can't really understand any particular piece of QM without first understanding some other piece of QM." But after you've seen most of the pieces, you'll begin to appreciate how they fit together.
 

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