Schrodinger equation for potential drop

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on solving the Schrödinger equation for a particle encountering a finite potential drop. For the region x<0, the wave function is expressed as ψ(x) = 1/√(k0)(Arighteik0x + Alefte-ik0x), where k0 = √[2m(E + Vo)/hbar²]. In the region x>0, the wave function is ψ(x) = 1/√(k1)(Brighteik1x + Blefte-ik1x), with k1 = √[2m(E)/hbar²]. The key conclusion is that the coefficient Bleft must be zero due to the absence of reflection past the potential drop, while Aleft cannot be zero, thus proving that a potential drop causes reflection.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Time-independent Schrödinger equation
  • Familiarity with wave functions and boundary conditions
  • Knowledge of quantum mechanics concepts such as potential energy and reflection
  • Proficiency in mathematical techniques for solving differential equations
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of boundary conditions in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the continuity of wave functions and their derivatives at potential boundaries
  • Explore the concept of reflection and transmission coefficients in quantum mechanics
  • Investigate the mathematical derivation of the Schrödinger equation solutions for various potential profiles
USEFUL FOR

Students of quantum mechanics, physicists working with wave functions, and anyone interested in understanding the behavior of particles in potential fields.

cep
Messages
50
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Hello! I'm looking at a situation where there is a finite potential Vo for x<0, but zero potential for x>0. For a particle moving from left to right, I'm wondering what coefficients for the solution to the Schrödinger equation are equal to zero, and also how to prove that there is reflection even for a potential drop. hbar is h/(2π).

Homework Equations



Time-independent Schrödinger equation

The Attempt at a Solution



Here's what I'm thinking:

For x<0, ψ(x) = 1/√(k0)(Arighteik0x+Alefte-ik0x)
where k0 = √[2m(E+Vo)/hbar2]

For x>0, ψ(x) = 1/√(k1)(Brighteik1x+Blefte-ik1x)
where k1 = √[2m(E)/hbar2]

I think that Bleft is zero, as there is nothing to cause reflection past the potential drop. How can I prove this, and that Aleft is non-zero (ie, potential drop produces reflection)? I know that the wave function and its derivative must be continuous at x=0-- is that sufficient?

Thank you!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Sorry, it lost the sub/superscripts. Here are the rewritten equations

For x<0, ψ(x) = 1/√(k0)*(Arighteik0x+Alefte-ik0x)
where k0 = √[2m(E+Vo)/hbar2]

For x>0, ψ(x) = 1/√(k1)*(Brighteik1x+Blefte-ik1x)
where k1 = √[2m(E)/hbar2]
 
There's nothing to prove. Just state the reason you gave for why Bleft=0. That's enough.
 
... really? I'm skeptical-- the problem asks for a proof.
 
*proof that a potential drop causes reflection, not proof of which coefficient is zero.
 
If you know that B-left is 0 then you know what the form of the equation is on the right side (x>0)

Now its just a boundary condition problem. you need to find A-left and A-right so that the two equations match up at x = 0. Set the two equations equal to each other at x = 0 and also set their derivates to be equal at x = 0. Then its just 2 equations 2 unknowns.

You should find that for the two equations to match up A-left cannot be 0 and there's your proof of reflection
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K