Second Derivative of Heaviside Function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the second derivative of the Heaviside function, particularly at the point x=0. Participants are exploring the implications of this derivative in the context of extending a proof involving piecewise-constant functions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to clarify the nature of the second derivative of the Heaviside function, with some suggesting it is zero everywhere except at x=0, while others question the definition and continuity at that point. There are discussions about the relationship between the Heaviside function and the Dirac delta function, as well as the implications for a proof involving differentiable functions.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing insights and clarifications regarding the definitions and properties of the Heaviside function and its derivatives. There is a recognition of the undefined nature of the second derivative at x=0, but no consensus has been reached on the implications for the original proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the Heaviside function is defined everywhere but not continuous at x=0, raising questions about the validity of certain mathematical operations involving its derivatives. There is also mention of the need for specific relationships between derivatives in the context of the proof being discussed.

Choragos
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Hello all. In short, I am wondering what the second derivative of the Heaviside function (let's say H[(0)]) would be. I'm presuming that it's undefined (or more accurately, zero everywhere but at x=0), but I would like to know if that is correct.

Essentially, I am attempting to extend a proof which uses f(x) where f''(x) is defined. I would like to extend this proof to a piecewise-constant f(x). However, one of the requirements is that f'(x) >> f''(x) >> f(n)(x). If H''[(0)] is undefined, than this approach will not work.

My attempt at a solution is as follows. Given a general, differentiable function f(x), then

\intf(x)δ(n)dx \equiv -\int\frac{∂f}{∂x}δ(n-1)(x)dx

I am, however, unclear as to the meaning of δ(n-1), especially when n=1.

Thanks for your help.
 
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Choragos said:
Hello all. In short, I am wondering what the second derivative of the Heaviside function (let's say H[(0)]) would be. I'm presuming that it's undefined (or more accurately, zero everywhere but at x=0), but I would like to know if that is correct.
The Heaviside function is defined everywhere, but it's not continuous at x = 0. What are you referring to when you say "it's undefined", the Heaviside function or its 2nd derivative? What you wrote isn't clear.

If x < 0, H'(x) = 0. If x > 0, H'(x) = 0, so on these intervals, H''(x) would also be zero.
Choragos said:
Essentially, I am attempting to extend a proof which uses f(x) where f''(x) is defined. I would like to extend this proof to a piecewise-constant f(x). However, one of the requirements is that f'(x) >> f''(x) >> f(n)(x). If H''[(0)] is undefined, than this approach will not work.
Both H' and H'' are not defined at x = 0.
Choragos said:
My attempt at a solution is as follows. Given a general, differentiable function f(x), then

\intf(x)δ(n)dx \equiv -\int\frac{∂f}{∂x}δ(n-1)(x)dx

I am, however, unclear as to the meaning of δ(n-1), especially when n=1.

Thanks for your help.
 
Thanks for your reply. I meant that the second derivative did not exist at x=0.

My notation is sloppy (my apologies, I'm a geophysicist and a poor mathematician), but shouldn't H'=δ, where δ is the Dirac delta function? Proceeding from that, then the question becomes δ'=? That is why I was investigating the identity above, but wasn't really understanding what it was telling me.

I agree that H'' = 0 everywhere but at x=0. I suppose H''(0) is undefined.
 
Choragos said:
Thanks for your reply. I meant that the second derivative did not exist at x=0.

My notation is sloppy (my apologies, I'm a geophysicist and a poor mathematician), but shouldn't H'=δ, where δ is the Dirac delta function?
One definition is
$$ H(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x δ(t)dt$$
"although this expansion may not hold (or even make much sense) for x = 0." http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heaviside_step_function
If you differentiate both sides above, H'(x) = δ(x), using the FTC.

I was look at H(x) from the perspective of being a step function instead of as an integra.
Choragos said:
Proceeding from that, then the question becomes δ'=? That is why I was investigating the identity above, but wasn't really understanding what it was telling me.

I agree that H'' = 0 everywhere but at x=0. I suppose H''(0) is undefined.
 

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