Second Derivative of Heaviside Function

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SUMMARY

The second derivative of the Heaviside function, denoted as H''(x), is zero everywhere except at x=0, where it is undefined. This conclusion arises from the properties of the Heaviside function, which is defined as a piecewise constant function. The discussion highlights the relationship between the Heaviside function and the Dirac delta function, where H'(x) equals δ(x). The participants clarify that both H' and H'' are not defined at x=0, which is crucial for extending proofs involving differentiable functions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Heaviside function and its properties
  • Familiarity with the Dirac delta function and its derivatives
  • Knowledge of piecewise functions and their derivatives
  • Basic calculus concepts, including differentiation and integration
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Choragos
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Hello all. In short, I am wondering what the second derivative of the Heaviside function (let's say H[(0)]) would be. I'm presuming that it's undefined (or more accurately, zero everywhere but at x=0), but I would like to know if that is correct.

Essentially, I am attempting to extend a proof which uses f(x) where f''(x) is defined. I would like to extend this proof to a piecewise-constant f(x). However, one of the requirements is that f'(x) >> f''(x) >> f(n)(x). If H''[(0)] is undefined, than this approach will not work.

My attempt at a solution is as follows. Given a general, differentiable function f(x), then

\intf(x)δ(n)dx \equiv -\int\frac{∂f}{∂x}δ(n-1)(x)dx

I am, however, unclear as to the meaning of δ(n-1), especially when n=1.

Thanks for your help.
 
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Choragos said:
Hello all. In short, I am wondering what the second derivative of the Heaviside function (let's say H[(0)]) would be. I'm presuming that it's undefined (or more accurately, zero everywhere but at x=0), but I would like to know if that is correct.
The Heaviside function is defined everywhere, but it's not continuous at x = 0. What are you referring to when you say "it's undefined", the Heaviside function or its 2nd derivative? What you wrote isn't clear.

If x < 0, H'(x) = 0. If x > 0, H'(x) = 0, so on these intervals, H''(x) would also be zero.
Choragos said:
Essentially, I am attempting to extend a proof which uses f(x) where f''(x) is defined. I would like to extend this proof to a piecewise-constant f(x). However, one of the requirements is that f'(x) >> f''(x) >> f(n)(x). If H''[(0)] is undefined, than this approach will not work.
Both H' and H'' are not defined at x = 0.
Choragos said:
My attempt at a solution is as follows. Given a general, differentiable function f(x), then

\intf(x)δ(n)dx \equiv -\int\frac{∂f}{∂x}δ(n-1)(x)dx

I am, however, unclear as to the meaning of δ(n-1), especially when n=1.

Thanks for your help.
 
Thanks for your reply. I meant that the second derivative did not exist at x=0.

My notation is sloppy (my apologies, I'm a geophysicist and a poor mathematician), but shouldn't H'=δ, where δ is the Dirac delta function? Proceeding from that, then the question becomes δ'=? That is why I was investigating the identity above, but wasn't really understanding what it was telling me.

I agree that H'' = 0 everywhere but at x=0. I suppose H''(0) is undefined.
 
Choragos said:
Thanks for your reply. I meant that the second derivative did not exist at x=0.

My notation is sloppy (my apologies, I'm a geophysicist and a poor mathematician), but shouldn't H'=δ, where δ is the Dirac delta function?
One definition is
$$ H(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x δ(t)dt$$
"although this expansion may not hold (or even make much sense) for x = 0." http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heaviside_step_function
If you differentiate both sides above, H'(x) = δ(x), using the FTC.

I was look at H(x) from the perspective of being a step function instead of as an integra.
Choragos said:
Proceeding from that, then the question becomes δ'=? That is why I was investigating the identity above, but wasn't really understanding what it was telling me.

I agree that H'' = 0 everywhere but at x=0. I suppose H''(0) is undefined.
 

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