Second Quantization for Fermions: Creation Operator

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The discussion revolves around the mathematical aspects of second quantization for fermions, specifically addressing the necessity of summation and the role of the Pauli Exclusion Principle. Participants clarify that the summation is related to the antisymmetry of fermionic wavefunctions, which requires that no two fermions can occupy the same quantum state. The factor of (-1)^Np is introduced to maintain the correct sign in calculations involving the creation and annihilation operators. Additionally, there is a query about the derivation of specific equations, highlighting the complexity of understanding these concepts. Overall, the conversation emphasizes the foundational principles of fermionic behavior in quantum mechanics.
jhosamelly
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So, I'm studying Second Quantization for fermions and came across this equation. I was just wondering why there is a summation needed? And why do we do it with (i≠p).? Please can someone explain this to me?

Reply and help is much appreciated.
 
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jhosamelly said:
2crrgiq.jpg


So, I'm studying Second Quantization for fermions and came across this equation. I was just wondering why there is a summation needed? And why do we do it with (i≠p).? Please can someone explain this to me?

Reply and help is much appreciated.
This is basically a mathematical expression for the Pauli Exclusion Principle.
Two ways to state the Pauli exclusion principle are:
1) Two or more fermion particles can not share the same quantum state.
2) A specific quantum state can have either 0 or 1 fermion particles.
 
Ow! Yes, I've read that! But why the need for Np? And why is -1 raised to Np if we just want to keep its sign?
 
i'll post the whole page so you would have an idea about my question

30joh9w.jpg

11tmnue.jpg


So here, for those I put check on. Why is there a (-1)^Np? I know that's part of the creation and annihilation operator, but why is it there?

Second, the equation I encircled has Nq+1. How did that happen? Thanks.
 
It just arises because of the antisymmetry required,which introduces a factor of -1.
 
Hmmm.. Because wavefunction for fermions are antisymmetric? Ok. Got that! But how was the encircled eqn derived? And the last equation is also giving me a hard time. I am trying to derive everything here.
 
jhosamelly said:
Hmmm.. Because wavefunction for fermions are antisymmetric? Ok. Got that! But how was the encircled eqn derived? And the last equation is also giving me a hard time. I am trying to derive everything here.

Hy, you seem to be lost.
Perhaps, this reference will be helpful:
www.scholarpedia.org/article/Second_quantization
(please respect the recommandations at the bottom of the page)
These operators seem to be spinors and have a typical anticommutative behavior.
I cannot help you directly, sorry.
Good luck
 

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