chimychang
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[tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} n \sin(\frac{1}{n})[/tex]
I rewrote the sum as [tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin(\frac{1}{n})}{\frac{1}{n}}[/tex]
Then I applied the Nth term test and used L'Hoptials rule so [tex]\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{\cos(\frac{1}{n})\frac{-1}{n^2}}{\frac{-1}{n^2}}[/tex]
The [tex]\frac{-1}{n^2}[/tex] cancel out and the [tex]lim_{n\to\infty} \cos(\frac{1}{n})[/tex] is 1 which by the nth term test is divergent. Is that a legitimate proof of divergence?
I rewrote the sum as [tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin(\frac{1}{n})}{\frac{1}{n}}[/tex]
Then I applied the Nth term test and used L'Hoptials rule so [tex]\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{\cos(\frac{1}{n})\frac{-1}{n^2}}{\frac{-1}{n^2}}[/tex]
The [tex]\frac{-1}{n^2}[/tex] cancel out and the [tex]lim_{n\to\infty} \cos(\frac{1}{n})[/tex] is 1 which by the nth term test is divergent. Is that a legitimate proof of divergence?