Serious second mean value theorem for integration

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Serious Second Mean Value Theorem for integration, which states that if \( f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} \) is integrable and \( \phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} \) is monotonic, then there exists \( \xi \in (a,b) \) such that the integral equation holds: \(\int_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx = \left(\lim_{x\to a^+}\phi(x)\right) \int_a^{\xi} f(x)dx + \left(\lim_{x\to b^-}\phi(x)\right) \int_{\xi}^b f(x)dx\). The discussion also references a weaker formulation of the theorem involving continuous \( f \) and differentiable \( \phi \) with \( \phi' \geq 0 \), which can be proven using integration by parts and the first mean value theorem.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of integrable functions in real analysis
  • Familiarity with monotonic functions and their properties
  • Knowledge of integration techniques, particularly integration by parts
  • Basic concepts of the mean value theorem in calculus
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  • Study the proof of the Mean Value Theorem for integrals
  • Explore the implications of monotonic functions in integration
  • Learn about the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus and its applications
  • Research advanced calculus textbooks that cover the Serious Second Mean Value Theorem
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Mathematicians, calculus students, and educators seeking to deepen their understanding of advanced integration theorems and their proofs.

jostpuur
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The claim:

If [itex]f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is integrable, and [itex]\phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is monotonic (hence continuous almost everywhere), then there exists [itex]\xi\in ]a,b[[/itex] such that
[tex] \int\limits_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx \;=\; \big(\lim_{x\to a^+}\phi(x)\big) \int\limits_a^{\xi} f(x)dx \;+\; \big(\lim_{x\to b^-}\phi(x)\big) \int\limits_{\xi}^b f(x)dx[/tex]

Who knows how to prove that?

Or who knows a serious book on calculus, that would cover this? Or a publication that could be found in university libraries?

I found the claim from Wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mean_value_theorem But no proof.

I don't remember where, but somewhere some years ago I found a website, that gave a proof for a weaker formulation of this theorem. It goes like this:

If [itex]f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is continuous, and [itex]\phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is differentiable such that [itex]\phi'\geq 0[/itex], then there exists [itex]\xi\in [a,b][/itex] such that
[tex] \int\limits_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx \;=\; \phi(a) \int\limits_a^{\xi} f(x)dx \;+\; \phi(b) \int\limits_{\xi}^b f(x)dx[/tex]
This can be proven by first substituting
[tex] f(x) = D_x\int\limits_a^x f(u)du[/tex]
then integrating by parts, and then using the first mean value theorem.
 
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You first prove ##\displaystyle{\int_a^b }f(x)\phi(x)\,dx = f(\xi) \displaystyle{\int_a^b}\phi(x)\,dx## and apply partial integration and the fundamental theorem of calculus.
 

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