Set Theory Basic Proof, showing two sets are equal

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To prove the equality of the two sets, A and B, one must show both A is a subset of B and B is a subset of A. Starting with A, if x is in A, then x can be expressed as 6y for some integer y, which can be rewritten as x = 2(3y) and x = 3(2y), thus demonstrating that x is also in B. For the reverse, to show B is a subset of A, one needs to leverage the fact that 2 and 3 are mutually prime, ensuring that any integer expressed as 2u and 3v must also be expressible as 6y for some integer y. The discussion emphasizes the importance of adhering to formal definitions in proofs and provides guidance on structuring the argument correctly. Understanding these principles will aid in mastering set theory proofs.
LawdyLawdy
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Hello,
I am trying to teach myself set theory...main problem is, as an engineer, mathematical proofs were never exactly stressed in my curriculum. (Scary, right?)

The problem is stated as follows:

"Prove the following,
{x\inZ|for an integer y, x=6y}={x\inZ|for integers u and v, x=2u and x=3v}"

Z is the set of all integers.
(let's call the left side of the equation set A and the right side set B)
I can't seem to get my head around the "prose" of proofs.

I understand in order to prove a set A is equivalent to set B I need to show they have the exact same members ( A\subseteqB and B\subseteqA )
I also realize that if x=6y is in A then x=2(3y) and x=3(2y) is in B if you consider 3y and 2y the integers u and v, respectively.

I guess my question would be how to write it in an "acceptable" way and if the way I am going is the correct direction.(that is important too I suppose :p )

Apologies if this is a bit cluttered, this is my first time posting a math question on a forum and am working on getting the hang of it. Thanks in advance though for any help.
 
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LawdyLawdy said:
Hello,
I am trying to teach myself set theory...main problem is, as an engineer, mathematical proofs were never exactly stressed in my curriculum. (Scary, right?)

The problem is stated as follows:

"Prove the following,
{x\inZ|for an integer y, x=6y}={x\inZ|for integers u and v, x=2u and x=3v}"

Z is the set of all integers.
(let's call the left side of the equation set A and the right side set B)
I can't seem to get my head around the "prose" of proofs.

I understand in order to prove a set A is equivalent to set B I need to show they have the exact same members ( A\subseteqB and B\subseteqA )
I also realize that if x=6y is in A then x=2(3y) and x=3(2y) is in B if you consider 3y and 2y the integers u and v, respectively.

I guess my question would be how to write it in an "acceptable" way and if the way I am going is the correct direction.(that is important too I suppose :p )

Apologies if this is a bit cluttered, this is my first time posting a math question on a forum and am working on getting the hang of it. Thanks in advance though for any help.

As you point out, you need to show that

A\subseteq B and B\subseteq A

So you need to show two separate things.

To show that A\subseteq B, you go to directly to the set theory definition of A\subseteq B; which is:

For all x, if x \in A then x \in B

So assume x is in A, and show that it must be in B; and then assume x is in B, and show it must be in A.

In general, it's always helpful to go directly to the texbook definitions, rather than trying to overthink the problem. In other words we have an intuitive idea of what A\subseteq B means, but it's more effective to go directly to the definition. This is a common pattern in doing proofs.

Re-reading your post, it looks like you're going in the right direction.
 
Last edited:
LawdyLawdy said:
Hello,
I am trying to teach myself set theory...main problem is, as an engineer, mathematical proofs were never exactly stressed in my curriculum. (Scary, right?)

The problem is stated as follows:

"Prove the following,
{x\inZ|for an integer y, x=6y}={x\inZ|for integers u and v, x=2u and x=3v}"

Z is the set of all integers.
(let's call the left side of the equation set A and the right side set B)
I can't seem to get my head around the "prose" of proofs.

I understand in order to prove a set A is equivalent to set B I need to show they have the exact same members ( A\subseteqB and B\subseteqA )
I also realize that if x=6y is in A then x=2(3y) and x=3(2y) is in B if you consider 3y and 2y the integers u and v, respectively.

I guess my question would be how to write it in an "acceptable" way and if the way I am going is the correct direction.(that is important too I suppose :p )

Apologies if this is a bit cluttered, this is my first time posting a math question on a forum and am working on getting the hang of it. Thanks in advance though for any help.
Yes, you are correct. To prove A= B, for sets, prove both A\subseteq B and B\subseteq A. And to prove each of those, start "if p\in A" and use the properties of both A and B to show "therefore p\in B"

Let A= {x\inZ|for an integer y, x=6y} and B={x\inZ|for integers u and v, x=2u and x=3v}. If p\in A then x= 6y for some y. Let u= 3y and v= 2y. Then x= 6y= 2(3y)= 2u and x= 6y= 3(2y)= 3v. Therefore p\in B so A\subset B. Now do the other way. That's slightly harder. You will need to use the fact that 2 and 3 are mutually prime.
 
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Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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