Shhowing a map is well defined and bijective

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on demonstrating that the map i: G/G_x, defined by i(gG_x) = gx, is well-defined and bijective under the transitive action of group G on set X. The transitive action implies that for any two elements x, y in X, there exists a g in G such that g·x = y, establishing surjectiveness. The proof of injectiveness involves showing that if gG_x = hG_x, then gx = hx, confirming that the mapping is both injective and surjective, thus bijective. Additionally, proper notation in LaTeX is emphasized for clarity in mathematical expressions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of group theory, specifically transitive actions.
  • Familiarity with the concept of equivalence classes in group actions.
  • Knowledge of the definitions of surjective and injective functions.
  • Proficiency in LaTeX for mathematical notation.
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  • Study the properties of transitive group actions in detail.
  • Learn about equivalence relations and their implications in group theory.
  • Explore examples of bijective functions and their proofs in mathematical contexts.
  • Practice writing mathematical expressions in LaTeX, focusing on proper symbols and formatting.
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This discussion is beneficial for students and researchers in abstract algebra, particularly those studying group actions and their applications in mathematics. It also aids anyone looking to improve their mathematical writing skills in LaTeX.

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Homework Statement



The group G acts transitively from the left on the set X. Let G_x be the little group of the element x \epsilon X. Show that the map i:G/G_x, i(gG_x)=gx is well defined and bijective.

Homework Equations



transitive action:for any two x, y in X there exists a g in G such that g·x = y

The Attempt at a Solution



Transitive action shows that x \epsilon X, g \epsilon G -> g·x \epsilon X. This shows that the mapping is a surjection. Now how do i show that it's an injection? And obviously the bijection thing shows that the function is well defined, right? Even the injection would suffice for this?
 
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And obviously the bijection thing shows that the function is well defined, right? Even the injection would suffice for this?
No. In your proof of injectiveness you will assume that i is a function, but before you have shown that it's well-defined we only know that it's a relation. Of course I can't use the example you gave as it's a function and bijective, but there do exists bijective relations that are not functions. Consider for instance f(0) = 0, f(0) = 1 defined from \{0\} to \{0,1\}. As a relation f is both injective since only one element map to 0 and only one element map to 1, and it's surjective since there is an element that map to 0 and an element that map to 1, but it's not a function.

To show that it's well-defined you suppose gG_x = hG_x and then show gx=hx, but this is clear since gx=hx iff h^{-1}gx=x iff h^{-1}g \in G_x iff h^{-1}gG_x = G_x iff gG_x=hG_x. This also shows injectiveness since we have bi-implications all the way so if gx =hx, then gG_x = hG_x. So in this case you could do injectiveness and that i is well-defined together, but this is not true in general.

Transitive action shows that x \epsilon X, g \epsilon G -> g·x \epsilon X. This shows that the mapping is a surjection.
You may have the right idea (as this resembles the right way), but as written this is flawed (and you use the symbol x for two distinct objects which can be confusing). You first consider an arbitrary element y \in X and then you want to show that there exists some gG_x \in G/G_x which the property i(gG_x)=y. Since the action is transitive we can find an element g \in G such that gx = y. [Stating that gx \in X doesn't really give us any information or use transitivity since that is true for all group actions.] Now i(gG_x) = gx = y so i is surjective.


As a small aside: when you type math into LaTeX, then use \in instead of \epsilon for inclusion and use \to to make the arrow.
 
Thanks for the help.
 

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