MHB Show existence of subsequences

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The discussion centers on proving the existence of increasing and decreasing subsequences from a bounded sequence that converge to its supremum and infimum, respectively. A counterexample is presented with the sequence (0, 2, 1, 1, 1, 1, ...), which is bounded but does not have a subsequence converging to its supremum of 2. A construction method for the increasing subsequence is proposed, relying on the properties of the supremum. However, concerns are raised about the validity of this construction, particularly regarding its convergence to the supremum. The conversation highlights the need for careful selection of subsequences to ensure they meet the convergence criteria.
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

Let $(a_n)$ be a bounded sequence such that $\inf_{\ell} a_{\ell}<a_n< \sup_{\ell} a_{\ell}$ for each $n=1,2, \dots$

I want to show that there are subsequences $(a_{k_n})$ increasing and $(a_{m_n})$ decreasing such that $a_{k_n} \to \sup_{\ell} a_{\ell}$ and $a_{m_n} \to \inf_{\ell} a_{\ell}$.Could you give me a hint how we could find the desired subsequences? (Thinking)
 
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Hey evinda!

I don't think it's true. (Worried)

Suppose we take the sequence $(a_n) = (0,2,1,1,1,1,...)$.
Then it's bounded and its supremum is $2$, but there is no subsequence that converge to $2$ is there? (Wondering)
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
Hey evinda!

I don't think it's true. (Worried)

Suppose we take the sequence $(a_n) = (0,2,1,1,1,1,...)$.
Then it's bounded and its supremum is $2$, but there is no subsequence that converge to $2$ is there? (Wondering)
That sequence attains its supremum (and infimum). evinda is looking at bounded sequences that do not attain their least upper or greatest lower bounds.

@evinda:
This is my suggestion. Let $s=\sup_la_l$. Try and construct a subsequence $\left(a_{k_n}\right)$ as follows. Let $a_{k_1}=a_1$. Then there exists $a_{n_1}$ such that $a_{k_1}<\dfrac{a_{k_1}+s}2<a_{n_1}<s$ since $s$ is the least upper bound. Let $a_{k_2}=a_{n_1}$. Now $\exists a_{n_2}$ such that $a_{k_2}<\dfrac{a_{k_2}+s}2<a_{n_2}<s$; let $a_{k_3}=a_{n_2}$. Continue this way to get the subsequence $\left(a_{k_n}\right)$ where at the $i$th stage $\exists a_{n_i}$ such that $a_{k_i}<\dfrac{a_{k_i}+s}2<a_{n_i}<s$ and you let $a_{k_{i+1}}=a_{n_i}$. Clearly $\left(a_{k_n}\right)$ is increasing and $\dfrac{a_{k_1}+\left(2^n-1\right)s}{2^n}<a_{k_{n+1}}<s$ (easily proved by induction); since $\dfrac{a_{k_1}+\left(2^n-1\right)s}{2^n}\to s$ as $n\to\infty$, $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}a_{k_n}=s$ by the squeeze theorem.

Similarly for the other subsequence $\left(a_{m_n}\right)$.
 
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Hi Everyone,

Wanted to politely jump into say that the construction above needs a slight modification since it does not ensure that the subsequence we select converges to the supremum. Ignoring the infimum stuff, consider the sequence defined by: $a_{2n+1}=-\dfrac{1}{2n+1}$ and $a_{2n}=1-\dfrac{1}{2n}.$ Then it is possible to have selected the subsequence $-1, -1/3, -1/5, \ldots,$ which does not converge to the supremum value of 1.

Note: I admit this example does not possesses the strict inequality property on the infimum, but that is independent of what we are considering here.
 
GJA said:
Hi Everyone,

Wanted to politely jump into say that the construction above needs a slight modification since it does not ensure that the subsequence we select converges to the supremum. Ignoring the infimum stuff, consider the sequence defined by: $a_{2n+1}=-\dfrac{1}{2n+1}$ and $a_{2n}=1-\dfrac{1}{2n}.$ Then it is possible to have selected the subsequence $-1, -1/3, -1/5, \ldots,$ which does not converge to the supremum value of 1.

Note: I admit this example does not possesses the strict inequality property on the infimum, but that is independent of what we are considering here.
Thanks GJA. I also noticed the same thing and was editing my post as you posted; I think the edited version will work now. (Nod)
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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