Show linear dependence directly

Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
3 replies · 5K views
2h2o
Messages
51
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Show directly that the given functions are linearly dependent on the real line==>find a non-trivial linear combination of the given functions that vanishes identically.

Homework Equations



[tex]f(x) = 2x, g(x) = 3x^{2}, h(x) = 5x-8x^{2}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I know that the structure of the solution will be [tex]C_{1}y_{1}+C_{2}y_{2}+C_{3}y_{3}=0[/tex], so I find three equations for the three unknown constants.

[tex]C_{1}2x + C_{2}3x^{2} + C_{3}(5x-8x^{2}) = 0[/tex]...[1]

first derivative

[tex]2C_{1} + 6C_{2}x + C_{3}(5-16x) = 0[/tex]...[[2]

second derivative

[tex]0 + 6C_{2} -16C_{3} = 0[/tex]...[3]

Upon which I begin finding the constants:

Equation [3] immediately shows that [tex]6C_{2}=16C_{3}[/tex]

Then [2] becomes

[tex]2C_{1}+5C_{3}=0[/tex]

hence [tex]2C_{1} = -5C_{3}[/tex]

Now [tex]C_{1}=\frac{-5C_{3}}{2}[/tex]

So [tex]C_{1}=\frac{-5}{2}*\frac{3C_{2}}{8} = \frac{-15}{16}C_{2}[/tex]

Now everything I try gives me the wrong solutions..matrix, substitution (infinite substitutions since every constant is related to another constant.)

So how do I prove that these functions are L.D.?

Magically (or so it seems) the solution is supposed to be [tex]15(2x) - 16(3x^{2}) - 6(5x-8x^{2})=0[/tex]
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Ok, let's recap. You got C1=(-5/2)*C3 and C2=(16/6)*C3. That means you can express C1 and C2 in terms of C3. Ok, let's try it. They gave you a solution where C3=(-6). From your solution that means C1=15 and C2=-16. That checks, right? You could also have put C3 equal to anything else nonzero and gotten a different but valid answer.
 
Yep, that checks out just fine. So the choice of C3=(-6) was totally arbitrary and that is what was throwing me for a loop. So it turns out then that I had A correct answer all along, just not THE correct answer that they chose to yield nice, neat integer coefficients.

I used a matrix to solve (w/o using a Wronskian) for the coefficients of C1=5/2, C2=(-8/3), then C3=-1. Which works, and I believe to be valid because the "trivial solution" has all of the coefficients as zero--which implies to me that one or "some" coefficients can be zero in the non-trivial solution.

Thanks, Dick. If there is a flaw in my above reasoning, please let me know.

Cheers!
 
No flaws. They just picked one answer to show you. You found another. There's an infinite number of possible choices that work.