Show that a bilinear form is an inner product

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on demonstrating that the bilinear form g defined by g(v,w) = v1w1 + v2w2 + ... + vn-1wn-1 - vnwn is an inner product. Participants confirm that g is bilinear and symmetric but emphasize the necessity of proving its nondegeneracy. The nondegeneracy can be established by showing that the associated matrix is invertible, which is equivalent to demonstrating that g(v, w) = 0 for all w in V implies v = 0. Additionally, the discussion highlights that symmetric bilinear forms can be diagonalized, reinforcing the conditions for nondegeneracy.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of bilinear forms and their properties
  • Knowledge of symmetric matrices and their diagonalization
  • Familiarity with concepts of inner products in vector spaces
  • Basic linear algebra, including matrix invertibility
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of symmetric bilinear forms in detail
  • Learn about the diagonalization of matrices and its implications
  • Explore the definition and examples of Euclidean inner products
  • Investigate the relationship between bilinear forms and their associated matrices
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of linear algebra, and anyone studying the properties of bilinear forms and inner products in vector spaces.

CasinelliG
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Hi, I have a bilinear form defined as g : ℝnxℝn->ℝ by g(v,w) = v1w1 + v2w2 + ... + vn-1wn-1 - vnwn

I have to show that g is an inner product, so I checked that is bilinear and symmetric, but how to show that it's nondegenerate too?
 
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The map you have defined is not an inner product. Let v = (0,0,\dots,0,1) and notice that g(v,v)=-1 < 0. Did you mean to write g(v,w)=v^1w^1 + \dots + v^nw^n?
 
Some physics texts define inner product as nondegenerate symmetric bilinear form.

To show this bilinear form is nondegenerate, write down its matrix and show it´s invertible (= nondegenerate).
 
Alesak said:
Some physics texts define inner product as nondegenerate symmetric bilinear form.

To show this bilinear form is nondegenerate, write down its matrix and show it´s invertible (= nondegenerate).

Yes, that's exactly the case. Now the book also says that g is nondegenerate if g(v, w) = 0 for all w in V implies v = 0 (in which V is an arbitrary vector space of dimension n ≥ 1).

How does this correlate to the existence of the inverse matrix?
 
Doesn't the symmetric part imply that the associated matrix (a_ij):=(q(vi,vj)) is symmetric. Then you have a symmetric matrix.

Symmetric matrices are diagonalizable, and non-degenerate means none of the diagonal entries is zero.
 
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Take a nonzero v. Then there is some vi that is nonzero. Consider w:=(0,...,0,1,0,...,0) where the 1 is in the ith place. Then g(v,w) is nonzero in both cases.

jgens: An inner product g such that g(v,v)>0 for all nonzero v is a particular case of an inner product called a euclidean inner product.
 
CasinelliG said:
How does this correlate to the existence of the inverse matrix?

Bacle2 said it. It can be also said in this way: every symmetric bilinear form can be diagonalized by succesively completing the square(try it!), until you´ve found a new basis for your vector space where the bilinear form is "diagonal", i.e. of the form x1y1 + x2y2 + ... + xkyk. If k is smaller than dimension of your space, you can easily see the bilinear form is degenerate(by example). In this case, it´s associated matrix is not invertible.
 

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