Show that an orthonormal(ON) sequence is also a ON-basis in a Hilbert Space

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that an orthonormal (ON) sequence, denoted as (f_n)_{n=1}^{\infty}, is also an ON-basis for a Hilbert Space H, given that it satisfies the condition \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} ||e_n-f_n|| < 1, where (e_n)_{n=1}^{\infty} is an existing ON-basis for H. The key to the proof lies in demonstrating that (f_n)_{n=1}^{\infty} is a complete ON-sequence. Participants suggest utilizing Parseval's formula and exploring the relationship between the orthogonal complement V^\perp and the existing basis (e_n) to establish the completeness of (f_n).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Hilbert Spaces and their properties
  • Familiarity with orthonormal sequences and bases
  • Knowledge of Parseval's theorem
  • Concept of closed subspaces and orthogonal complements
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of Parseval's theorem in Hilbert Spaces
  • Research the properties of complete orthonormal sequences
  • Explore the relationship between orthogonal complements and bases in Hilbert Spaces
  • Learn about convergence criteria for series in functional analysis
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of functional analysis, and anyone studying the properties of Hilbert Spaces and orthonormal sequences will benefit from this discussion.

gothlev
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1. Problem description
Let [itex](e_n)_{n=1}^{\infty}[/itex] be an orthonormal(ON) basis for H (Hilbert Space). Assume that [itex](f_n)_{n=1}^{\infty}[/itex] is an ON-sequence in H that satisfies [itex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} ||e_n-f_n|| < 1[/itex]. Show that [itex](f_n)_{n=1}^{\infty}[/itex] is an ON-basis for H.

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The Attempt at a Solution


Somehow if it can be shown that [tex](f_n)_{n=1}^\infty[/tex] is an complete ON-sequence it can be concluded that [tex](f_n)_{n=1}^\infty[/tex] is a ON-basis for H. I tried to make use of Parseval's formula and also expanding the sum [tex]\sum_{n=1}^\infty ||e_n-f_n|| < 1[/tex] with the rules for inner products, but it did not really get me anywhere. Since I can not really think of anything else I would need someone to point me in the right direction. I might be missing something really obvious, but can not really see it.
 
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You know that [tex](f_n)[/tex] is an orthonormal sequence, so the only way it can fail to be an orthonormal basis is if the closed subspace [tex]V[/tex] generated by [tex](f_n)[/tex] is not the entire space [tex]H[/tex]. Think about how vectors in the orthogonal complement [tex]V^\perp = H \ominus V[/tex] expand in terms of [tex](e_n)[/tex] and how that relates to the [tex]f_n[/tex].
 

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